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no gusto / no le gusto

 

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  #1  
Old May 04, 2009, 01:26 PM
hola hola is offline
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no gusto / no le gusto

mujeres no gusto
mujeres no le gusto

they look the same to me.
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  #2  
Old May 04, 2009, 01:29 PM
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The first one is missing a (subject?). It would just say "Women don't like" (Don't like what?)

Second says "Women don't like it."

That's my take . . . but grammar, and in Spanish at that, is certainly not my area of expertise.
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  #3  
Old May 04, 2009, 01:38 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by hola View Post
mujeres no gusto
mujeres no le gusto

they look the same to me.
Neither one nor the other are correct. Did you want to say?

No gusto a las mujeres
No les gusto a las mujeres

What's the difference: there's no difference. The reason is because in Spanish we duplicate the IO with a pronoun (le/les, etc.). You can say both of them, but the most usual is the second one, that with the pronoun. Most of cases the duplication of the IO is compulsory.
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  #4  
Old May 04, 2009, 01:57 PM
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Oh, duh. Brain disconnect today, I guess.

Would it maybe be "Las mujeres no las gustan."? It really depends on what you're trying to say.
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  #5  
Old May 04, 2009, 03:25 PM
hola hola is offline
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I don't know but if you look at the conjugation chart for gustar, you would find gusto next to (yo) so that should answer the question about who the subject is. so now that we know who the subject is, doesn't it say "women don't like me."

a spanish woman born in Ponce, Puerto Rico said the second one. (mujeres no le gusto). I assume she's an expert. she must be an expert. it was her way of saying women don't like me (speaking of herself). I didn't see the importance of (le) if you are already conjugating the verb in your favor. again if you look at the conjugation table for gustar, (gusto) is next to (yo). its like saying comO a las tres instead of saying yo voy a comER a las tres. if the verb is already conjugated in your favor why use the infinitive or why add an IO. am i incorrect or correct? thats why to me if mujeres no le gusto means women don't like me, then why not just say mujeres no gusto.
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  #6  
Old May 04, 2009, 03:36 PM
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Okay, well the more we talk about this, the more apparent it is (to me) that I am not familiar with this usage of gustar. But I did a search and found this thread from wordreference.com. I believe it answers your question.
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  #7  
Old May 04, 2009, 03:37 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Fazor View Post
Oh, duh. Brain disconnect today, I guess.

Would it maybe be "Las mujeres no las gustan."? It really depends on what you're trying to say.
Sorry, but this sentence means nothing. You could say:

A las mujeres no les gusta X

Here you can see a compulsory pronoun with an IO value. You can't say "a las mujeres no gusta"*. Pronoun la/las is used as DO.

Maybe you could say:

Las mujeres no le gustan a alguien.

You have to know what is the subject, what is the DO and what is the IO. Verb and subject have concordance in number. Let me give you a very simple syntactic analysis of the first sentence:

X: subject (X is not an DO, you could say: A las mujeres no les gustan X and Y)
(no) gusta: verb
a las mujeres - les: indirect object

And now another one about the second sentence:

Las mujeres: subject
(no) gustan: verb, look at the concordance subject - verb
le - a alguien: IO

Sometimes it's difficult in Spanish to difference between ID and DO with the pronouns. The possibility of duplication is a clue to distinguish this IO.
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  #8  
Old May 04, 2009, 03:44 PM
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I think I understand the construction now.
Mujeres no le gusto. "(yo) Gusto" is "I please" the "le" is needed because that's what you're pleasing (or, in this case, not pleasing) to (The indirect object). Mujeres is needed because "le" is ambigous, and needs to be defined.

If they were already indicated in a prior sentence, you wouldn't need both. For instance: Las mujeres son loco! No le(s) gusto! Pero, soy perfecto!

I still think "le" needs to be "les" there, since "mujeres" is plural.
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  #9  
Old May 04, 2009, 03:55 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Fazor View Post
I think I understand the construction now.
Mujeres no le gusto. "(yo) Gusto" is "I please" the "le" is needed because that's what you're pleasing (or, in this case, not pleasing) to (The indirect object). Mujeres is needed because "le" is ambigous, and needs to be defined.

If they were already indicated in a prior sentence, you wouldn't need both. For instance: Las mujeres son loco! No le(s) gusto! Pero, soy perfecto!

I still think "le" needs to be "les" there, since "mujeres" is plural.
Yes, you're right. The sentence would be

A las mujeres (yo) no les gusto.

But you need also the preposition "a".
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  #10  
Old May 04, 2009, 04:15 PM
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A lot of the posts on the wordreference forum thread I linked have it the way hola said it was spoken to him; so I wonder if that's a regional thing? I wouldn't know about that though.
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