Imperfect Subjunctive choosing between "-ra" and "-se" endings

[laepelba]

It is my understanding that "hablara" and "hablase" are equivalent. But, in actual daily usage, what makes a native Spanish-speaker choose one or the other? Is one more formal? Does it depend on the other sounds in the sentence? Are there regional differences in usage? Is one used more in written language and the other in spoken language? Should I just decide to use one or the other? Or should I work on using both interchangeably? Thanks!

[JPablo]

I personally use both interchangeably, without no problem at all. I believe the Mexicans consider one form more "archaic" than the other... but right now I don't remember which one. Ookami and AlecCowan will have the right data on Argentina... but strictly speaking the only factor I use is how it sounds in the sentence, and use both without thinking consciously about which one I am going to use...

[aleCcowaN]

I use "-ra" ending almost exclusively, and "-se" to break monotony. It's typical from Argentina. If I was in Southern Spain it would be probably the other way around. In America predominates the form "-ra" because it was the form during 16th century, "-se" endings came here later.

You may use whichever and nobody would think you are formal or informal. Just build your personal style. People tend to use one much more than the other and 50-50 renderings sound artificial.

[laepelba]

Thanks, both of you. I think it makes sense to use the one that has the best "ring" to it in a given sentence.

[aleCcowaN]

"Si dijese A te enojarías, pero bien que te pondrías contento si dijera B", as it's clear that "dijese" is the "opposite" of "dijera" ... or not This is just an example of how "natural" is using both endings.

[laepelba]

Originally Posted by aleCcowaN

"Si dijese A te enojarías, pero bien que te pondrías contento si dijera B", as it's clear that "dijese" is the "opposite" of "dijera" ... or not This is just an example of how "natural" is using both endings.

the opposite??

[aleCcowaN]

Originally Posted by laepelba

the opposite??

Certainly not, it's just the "opposite". When it is "A vs. B" both endings may be used as an expressive (not meaning) way to pound on the asymmetry of the situation.

[laepelba]

Originally Posted by aleCcowaN

"Si dijese A te enojarías, pero bien que te pondrías contento si dijera B", as it's clear that "dijese" is the "opposite" of "dijera" ... or not This is just an example of how "natural" is using both endings.

Oh. So you meant that A and B are opposite......

[aleCcowaN]

Originally Posted by laepelba

Oh. So you meant that A and B are opposite......

Exactly, and we may use both endings to add some dramatic touch, as an expressive nuance. I'm sorry for being not clear enough from the beginning.

[laepelba]

Originally Posted by aleCcowaN

Exactly, and we may use both endings to add some dramatic touch, as an expressive nuance. I'm sorry for being not clear enough from the beginning.

No "sorry" necessary - I'm easily confused. It makes perfect sense now. I was looking only at construction ... but you are looking at the big picture: sounds, poetry, and grammar all coming together. Sometimes I wish I weren't a mathematician.