What's the deal with le/les?
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brimby
April 28, 2011, 12:13 PM
What is the difference between:
Ella vende un cuaderno al hombre.
Ella le vende un cuaderno al hombre.
?
Jessica
April 28, 2011, 12:55 PM
le is the indirect object, referring to hombre. Really, they aren't different
Luna Azul
April 29, 2011, 01:31 PM
What is the difference between:
Ella vende un cuaderno al hombre.
Ella le vende un cuaderno al hombre.
?
The second one is a construction in Spanish where the indirect object pronoun is used early in the sentence to determine the indirect object noun.
This pronoun is not always required, but it's more commonly used in everyday language and sounds better.
In short, both sentences mean the same but the second one is better.
;)
chileno
April 30, 2011, 07:34 AM
The second one is a construction in Spanish where the indirect object pronoun is used early in the sentence to determine the indirect object noun.
This pronoun is not always required, but it's more commonly used in everyday language and sounds better.
In short, both sentences mean the same but the second one is better.
;)
What's more, if you were referring to "the man" previously in your conversation, you can eliminate the reference to "the man"
Ella vió al hombre y le vende un cuaderno.
It is already understood that it was sold to the man.
CrOtALiTo
April 30, 2011, 04:26 PM
What is the difference between:
Ella vende un cuaderno al hombre.
Ella le vende un cuaderno al hombre.
?
At least for me the second ones is more correct for the translation into of the English
I hope your commentaries.
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