Dámelo. Dame. Dale.
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dogshed
May 01, 2011, 08:41 PM
I googled to find sentences and I'm not sure what I found.
Are the translations wrong? What's going on here?
Dale que me ha. Give it to me.
Dámelo. Give it to me.
Dame un regalo. – Give me a gift.
Wiktionary says dámelo is dar+me+lo.
"Compound of the informal second-person singular (tú) affirmative imperative form of dar, da and the pronouns me and lo."
Why is dámelo spelled with an á and dame is not?
"Is Dale que me ha." a common form?
wrholt
May 01, 2011, 11:42 PM
I googled to find sentences and I'm not sure what I found.
Are the translations wrong? What's going on here?
Dale que me ha. Give it to me.:?:
Dámelo. Give it to me.:good:
Dame un regalo. – Give me a gift.:good:
The first one seems incomplete to me.
Wiktionary says dámelo is dar+me+lo.
"Compound of the informal second-person singular (tú) affirmative imperative form of dar, da and the pronouns me and lo."
Correct.
Why is dámelo spelled with an á and dame is not?
That's what's required by the standard spelling and accent rules.
1. Words that end in a vowel letter (a, e, i, o, or u) or in one of the two consonant letters n or s are accented (stressed) on the second to last syllable, unless the word has only one syllable.
2. Words that end in any consonant letter EXCEPT n or s are accented (stressed) on the last syllable.
3. Any word whose accented (stressed) syllable does not fit either rule 1 or rule 2 MUST have a written accent mark over the main vowel of the accented syllable. This includes all words with 3 or more syllables whose accented syllable is not one of the two last syllables in the word.
Dame and dale match rule 1. Dámelo does not match either rule 1 or rule 2, so it must follow rule 3.
"Is Dale que me ha." a common form?
I don't think so. But I am not a native speaker.
aleCcowaN
May 02, 2011, 04:13 AM
"Is Dale que me ha." a common form?
You got that from a machine translation of Madonna's "Give it 2 me". That "translation" is a language travesty! Not only is not a common form, it just doesn't exist as an independent phrase.
dogshed
May 02, 2011, 08:44 AM
You got that from a machine translation of Madonna's "Give it 2 me". That "translation" is a language travesty! Not only is not a common form, it just doesn't exist as an independent phrase.
Whenever I google I skip over anything that looks like a song translation for that reason. The two examples I looked at were an answers.com page and a pdf of a sermon. Both seemed fishy to me.
http://www.qhministries.org/Document.Doc?id=119
http://wiki.answers.com/Q/How_do_you_say_give_it_to_me_in_Spanish
aleCcowaN
May 02, 2011, 09:13 AM
Google gives 14 pages: both you linked, two with Madonna's song, this very thread, another page saying other thing without using commas, and a few instances of documents that Google reads that way. Madonna's "translated" song, full of aberrations and a complete travesty, is the presumable source of the others.
As a rule of thumb when an expression in English returns X documents in Google, the Spanish equivalent should return about X/100 to X -it has to do with the way Google counts, not the actual number of documents, which is lesser-. For instance:
"give it to me" => 5980000 results
dámelo (1160000) + dámela (2450000) + me lo das (2420000) + me la das (1060000)=> 7090000 results
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