Why is gusta singular
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pacomartin123
May 11, 2012, 11:49 AM
http://www.palms.com/wp-content/themes/palmsnew-com/lib/timthumb.php?src=http://www.palms.com/wp-content/uploads/2011/01/MeGusta_589x328.jpg&w=589&h=328&zc=1&de=0
tacos and margaritas is plural. Why isn't it gustan?
wrholt
May 11, 2012, 01:11 PM
1. The ad is bilingual; the only thing in Spanish is the phrase "me gusta".
2. In this context, one can think of the situation (having inexpensive food and drink) as the subject, and the situation is naturally singular.
aleCcowaN
May 11, 2012, 01:56 PM
Exactly!
Tacos and margaritas, just 99 cents? I like that / I like that woman (Me gusta [eso/esa])
That's probably how the add is brain read.
"Me gusta" is no intended to "tacos and margaritas" but to get each of them at such a price.
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