When is IT?
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LeosDad
August 18, 2012, 02:38 PM
I have been learning Spanish via the Michel Thomas method CD's. While they are useful there is no way to ask questions.
With the statement
"I'm not selling it because I don't want to sell it."
i know this is
"no lo vendo porque no quiero venderlo"
but why isn't it
"no lo vendo porque no quiero lo vender"????
thank you in advance.
chileno
August 18, 2012, 03:24 PM
I have been learning Spanish via the Michel Thomas method CD's. While they are useful there is no way to ask questions.
With the statement
"I'm not selling it because I don't want to sell it."
i know this is
"no lo vendo porque no quiero venderlo"
but why isn't it
"no lo vendo porque no quiero lo vender"????
thank you in advance.
Because it would translate to:
I'm not selling it because I don't want to it sell ;)
c?
LeosDad
August 18, 2012, 03:58 PM
Thank you. Obvious when you think about it.
chileno
August 18, 2012, 04:01 PM
Thank you. Obvious when you think about it.
:)
But it takes some time of translating literally, until all begins to make sense.
pjt33
August 18, 2012, 04:51 PM
"no lo vendo porque no quiero lo vender"????
There are two valid options. Either the pronoun goes before the entire verb: no lo vendo porque no lo quiero vender; or it is attached as a clitic to the infinitive: no lo vendo porque no quiero venderlo. As a general rule the clitic is preferred when it's an option, but placing the pronoun before the verb is sometimes used for variety or emphasis.
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