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Why is "¡Te me largas!" imperative?

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levi.leans
April 07, 2013, 02:43 PM
How come it's said as a statement rather than a command? Does that mean"¡Me lo da!" Is equivalent to "¡Damelo!" ?

poli
April 08, 2013, 09:49 AM
How come it's said as a statement rather than a command? Does that mean"¡Me lo da!" Is equivalent to "¡Damelo!" ?
I think it's ¡que te me largas! or more commonly lárgate de mi. I'm pretty sure I'm right, but Spanish is my second language. Wait for a native speaker for a definitive answer.

AngelicaDeAlquezar
April 08, 2013, 11:45 AM
@levi: Conjugation in present can work as an imperative in many cases. Sometimes it's to make it sound less harsh (¿Me das ese libro? vs. ¡Dame ese libro!), sometimes it's just as harsh (¡Te me largas ahora mismo! vs. ¡Lárgate!).

-¿Me da un café por favor? (very polite - Can I have a coffee please?)
-Deme un café por favor. (polite - Please give me a coffee.)
-Deme un café. (Not very polite - Give me a coffee.)



@Poli: I think that "que" at the start of a sentence is only used in Spain. At least in Mexico, we never use it.

chileno
April 08, 2013, 11:51 AM
How come it's said as a statement rather than a command? Does that mean"¡Me lo da!" Is equivalent to "¡Démelo!" ?

Like Angélica said, yes. :)

levi.leans
April 08, 2013, 12:57 PM
Thank you all so very much!!!!!!!