arnoldsg72
November 18, 2014, 03:13 AM
Some reflexive verb forms, such as "perderse" (to get lost), "olvidarse" (to be forgotten) and so on can be used with another (indirect object) unstressed pronoun referring to a person. Then, the person becomes the subject in the translation into English, but in this Spanish construction, the responsibility for the loss is reduced by not making the person the subject of the sentence. "I lost the book" can be "Perdí el libro" , but "El libro se me perdió" or "Se me perdió el libro" (literally: "The book got lost on me")
How can i find out (from dictionary or verb concept) that a verb might be used in "no-faul" construction?
In mostly references we have just two examples: perderse and olvidarse.
how can i find out other verbs can obey from this rule like "decir", "golpear" and ...?
Are this construction just for the verbs that they have the "loss" concept?
How can i find out (from dictionary or verb concept) that a verb might be used in "no-faul" construction?
In mostly references we have just two examples: perderse and olvidarse.
how can i find out other verbs can obey from this rule like "decir", "golpear" and ...?
Are this construction just for the verbs that they have the "loss" concept?