tomarse

[raji]

Usually for reflexive verbs like "acostarse","levantarse" we use

"acuéstese","levántese" but I have seen "se" being attached for non-reflexive verbs as well like

"tomarse un jarabe"
"darse una crema".

Why is "se" suffixed to non-reflexive verbs.

Pl help me understand

[WMX]

It's the same as I'm going to eat myself a steak tonight.

[Rusty]

There is a lot to be said about the use of the Spanish se. One of its uses is as a reflexive pronoun, to be sure, but it has several other uses. I can't take the time right now to explain.

Not all verbs that end in -se are reflexive verbs. They may be pronominal verbs or reciprocal verbs. Again, time doesn't permit me to expound.

[Tomisimo]

The reflexive form or simply using the -se pronoun is also a way to express the passive in Spanish.Se construyó una casa. = A house was built.
That's not particularly reflexive, since the house didn't build itself.

Consider the following sentences: Tomé un jugo de naranja en la mañana.
Me tomé un jugo de naranja en la mañana.
For all intents and purposes, these are equivalent. The difference may be similar to the difference between these two sentences in English:I drank a glass of orange juice this morning.
I had myself a glass of orange juice this morning.