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Why is "pueden" being used in the first example here?

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createdamadman
April 21, 2022, 09:22 PM
I have this screenshot from Rosetta Stone:


https://i.lensdump.com/i/t05MV5.png


In all three examples, he is talking to one person, so I can't figure out why he says "pueden" in the first example. Are "puede" and "pueden" interchangeable with the impersonal use of "se" or is this just an error?

Rusty
April 21, 2022, 09:54 PM
The impersonal 'se' is always associated with a third person singular verb.

The third person plural can be used in the passive 'se' construction.