which is preferable/acceptable

[pescamos]

hi,

which is preferable:

voy a comprarlo para ti
or
voy a comprartelo


lo compro para ti
or
te lo compro

what i'm trying to gauge here is how acceptable is it to say these statements in an almost 'english' way using the word 'para' for our 'for' instead of using indirect object pronouns, so it has the word order as the english 'i'm going to buy it for you' or 'i buy it for you'. I realise that the IDOP 'te' translates in to 'to you/for you', but can you get away without it?

otra vez, gracias por ayudarme,
craig.

[Felipe]

Is there a specific context you're using the sentence in? All four sentences seem to make sense and adhere to grammatical rules. Using "para" instead of the pronouns just feels wordy to me, but it still makes sense. Why does it have to imitate english syntax?

[Tomisimo]

The most normal/best sounding versions to my ears are:

te lo voy a comprar.
te lo compro.

Pero también estoy de acuerdo con lo que dice Felipe.

[sosia]

For me it's also context-specific.

I have a girlfriend. She sees a necklace in a jewelery glass and stops there for ten minutes like spiderman in a wall. I can say
"voy a comprarlo para ti" (I will buy it for you)
You say you will go and buy it for her.
Romantic, with the "para" you emphasises wich is your reason (your girlfriend)
It's like saying "I will buy it fooooor youuuuuuu"
or
"voy a comprartelo" (I will buy it for you)
You say the same, but more direct, and less romantic
or
"te lo compro" (I will buy it for you)
impulsive, total direct, not at last romantic
it's like saying "i'llbuyit" and stepping inside the shop.

other complete different example
I have a friend with a valuable comic. I'm interested. I can say
"si quieres venderlo, te lo compro" (If you buy it, I will buy it from you)
¿Its from you????:confused: I'm not quite sure
It's the same "te lo compro", but the meaning it's different.
So be more precisse, Felipe and Tomisimo are waiting :D :D to give you a proper definition of grammar terms

Greetings
PD:What's IDOP??

[Felipe]

PD:What's IDOP??

Indirect Object Pronoun

[Tomisimo]

sosia's right, "te lo compro" can mean "I'll buy it for you" or "I'll buy if from you", depending on the context. I also like the distinction made:

I'll buy it for ya / I'll buy ya it = te lo compro / te lo voy a comprar
I'll buy it (pause) for you (emphasis) = lo voy a comprar para tí

bonus material:

I'm going to buy it just for you. = Te lo voy a comprar sólo para tí.

[Tomisimo]

Indirect Object Pronoun

Pensé que quizá sea el International Department of Pancakes.

[sosia]

Thanks Felipe
Tomisimo, I had a laugh with your "bonus material" Thanks :-)

[Felipe]

Jaja... aborrezco ese restaurante. No concinan sus panqueques bien.

[Tomisimo]

Jaja... aborrezco ese restaurante. No concinan sus panqueques bien.
Pero bien que comes ahí cuando ningún otro está abierto. :) j/k

[pescamos]

tomisimo, your humour is quite dry!!!! very funny though!
i should have said iop.
as usual, thanks vey much to you all for replying and sosia's insight is very helpful.
in a typical conjuted verb followed by infinitve construction i prefer to attach object pronouns to the end of infinitives, and i notice sosia seems to as well, is there a gramatical reason why you (tomisimo) seem to favour them at the start of the conjugated form???? is it just prefernece?

gracias por ayudarme otra vez,
craig.

[Tomisimo]

Remember that sosia's a native speaker and I'm not, to begin with.

Pronouns (indirect and direct) can preceed the conjugated form or be attached to the infinitive at the end. There are several things that come into play to decide where to put them.

Here are some guidelines:
1. When you have only one conjugated verb the pronoun(s) must go first.
Te lo dí en la mañana.

2. There are some exceptions where a pronoun goes after a conjugated verb (and attached to it)
Véase la página 40.

3. Pronouns are attached to the end of infinitives (where there's only one verb)
Favor de no sentarse en estas sillas

4. When there's more than one verb, (one conjugated and one in infinitive), the pronoun(s) can go before or after.
Lo voy a ver - Voy a verlo.
Te lo voy a comprar - Voy a comprártelo.



But those are the rules that you probably already know.

What I think you're asking is why a speaker would choose one or the other.

I think the pronouns before the conjugated verb is slightly more informal than having them after (and attached to) the infinitive. I think it can also be a personal preference. One or the other may be more normal depending on region/country. Other than that, I'm not sure :D Perhaps sosia can elaborate since he's a native speaker.