Falto de or Sin
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wafflestomp
April 01, 2010, 07:16 PM
As a translation for without in Spanish? I have seen both words written as what we would read in English as "without"
Thanks :)
Rusty
April 01, 2010, 07:54 PM
Context is important. Both can be translated as 'without', but the first has other translations, like 'lack for'. If you want to provide a sentence/phrase, it might be easier to explain.
There is also a recent thread on 'faltar a (http://forums.tomisimo.org/showthread.php?t=7502)' that may give you something else to ponder.
María José
April 02, 2010, 06:51 AM
Rusty,
I might be wrong, but I think in some cases (when we express the lack of something) they are interchangeable, the only difference being that falto de sounds more formal.
falto de ganas= sin ganas
P.S. Sorry, I have just re-read you post and that's more or less what you had said already. I misunderstood you.:o
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