definition question

[pennat]

Does anyone know the meaning of: Si hable eso doset? The last word may be a misspelling. My Spainish knowledge is minimal. Thanks.

[Rusty]

I hope this phrase is surrounded by more Spanish. If so, please provide it. By placing the phrase in context, we'll have a better stab at trying to make sense of it. Thanks!

[Tomisimo]

I agree. If you can provide more context it would make it easier to understand.

The first part is probably "if you/he/she talk/speak".

[poli]

Could this be Spanglish? Might ese dosit mean easy does it?

[Jaqui]

To begin with, si hable is wrong because you don't use the subjunctive after the word si (when it means if).

[poli]

Correct me if I'm wrong, but I think you can use the subjunctive following si. Por ejemplo: Si estuviera rico, compraría una casa en las
bahamas.

[Rusty]

You are correct. The subjunctive can be used following 'si' as long as the phrase expresses doubt or a non-reality. I'm sure if I thought about it some more, I could give other reasons to use the subjunctive after 'if'.

[Elaina]

You guys are correct!

Si fuera rico.......... - If I was rich.....
Si hablé fué porque..... - If I spoke, it was because....
Si hubiera mas agua..... - if there was more water......

Y no..no creo que sea Spanglish.

Elaina:p

[pennat]

That was the entire sentence given to me. I think the 'easy does it' may be accurate as the person writing the message to me had sent a previous message in Latin that had not been a proper Latin translation. Thank you to everyone who responded.

[DavidMc]

Correct me if I'm wrong, but I think you can use the subjunctive following si. Por ejemplo: Si estuviera rico, compraría una casa en las
bahamas.
The imperfect subjunctive, as you indicate, is properly used after si. However, "the present subjunctive form of a verb is never used in a clause beginning with the conjunction si." (Barron's Spanish Grammar, 2nd Edition, page 106).

[poli]

Yes, David that information is certainly right.