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Old April 11, 2012, 08:56 AM
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Perikles Perikles is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by poli View Post
If you think about it, it's logical that antes de que takes the subjunctive, because outcome can never be certain.
You might think that is logical, but I don't think it is logical for statements in the past where there is no causal relationship.

A: She put her coat on before it started to rain.
B: She put her coat on before she caught a cold.

In A, there is no causal relationship, but there is in B. If I'm not mistaken, Spanish would use a subjunctive in both A and B, but I don't think this is logical in A. As a comparison, I think I'm right in saying that at least Latin, Greek and German would use a subjunctive in B, but not A.
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