pasa la bonita
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alexsuv
January 04, 2012, 12:11 AM
I am a novice in Spanish. When visiting Mexico I was told that the phrase which sounded like "pasa la bonita" means something like "have a nice time". However I believe I got the grammar not quite right. Could you correct it please?
Don José
January 04, 2012, 04:55 AM
It could be "pásala bonita".
We don't use that sentence in Spain, so I would wait for somebody to confirm it.
Rusty
January 04, 2012, 07:59 AM
This is a valid Mexican sentence, but it's more common to hear "Pásala bonito". Either way, it means "Have a nice time."
Elsewhere the phrase would be "Pásale bien" (or, less commonly, bonito). It's more common to hear, "Que le pase bien".
Don José
January 04, 2012, 09:37 AM
Elsewhere the phrase would be "Pásale bien" (or, less commonly, bonito). It's more common to hear, "Que le pase bien".
Here we say "pásalo bien" or "que lo pase(s) bien".
AngelicaDeAlquezar
January 04, 2012, 10:14 AM
Apart from what has been said, it could also have been "pásatela(-lo) bonito". Colloquially, we tend to use "bonito" instead of "bien", and lately, many people around are saying "-lo" instead of usual "-la". :)
alexsuv
January 04, 2012, 11:22 AM
Wow, thanks so much everyone for your great replies!
Have a great time! I mean: Pásala bonito!
Rusty
January 05, 2012, 03:46 PM
Here we say "pásalo bien" or "que lo pase(s) bien".You're right. It's common to use 'lo' (or 'la', in Mexico).
GuapaErika
January 11, 2012, 08:23 PM
Is it just a regional difference or is there a grammatical reason that some people would use "le" while others use "lo" or "la"? Is there a time that you would use "Pásalo bien" and a different time that you would use "Pásale bien"
In Spain, I do believe I used/heard "Que lo pases bien" most frequently.
Rusty
January 11, 2012, 09:48 PM
It is regional. When in Rome ...
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