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4 Simultaneous Verbs

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Tycholiz
May 23, 2012, 06:21 PM
How do I translate this sentence:

"We think that the exporters have been able to buy from the farmers...."

is it correct to say "Pensamos que los exportadores hayan estado poder comprar de los agricultores..."

Never seen this before!

Thanks ! :)

chileno
May 23, 2012, 08:20 PM
How do I translate this sentence:

"We think that the exporters have been able to buy from the farmers...." = Pensamos que los exportadores han sido capaces de comprarles a los granjeros/Pensamos que los exportadores han podido comprarles a los granjeros.

is it correct to say "Pensamos que los exportadores hayan estado poder comprar de los agricultores...":bad:

Never seen this before!

Thanks ! :)
:):):)

wrholt
May 24, 2012, 12:41 AM
As chileno demonstrates, the English verb "to be able to" cannot be rendered in Spanish as "estar poder". The common translations are either "poder" (which also often translates the modal auxiliaries "can" and "could") or "ser capaz de" (which also translates as "to be capable of").

In Spanish the only verb forms that can follow the verb 'estar' are (a) the -ndo form (gerundio) as part of a progressive tense [estoy estudiando = "I am studying (right now)"], or (b) the -do form (participio) in its common function as an adjective [estoy cansado/a = "I am tired"].

aleCcowaN
May 24, 2012, 01:48 AM
In Spanish there's only one conjugated verb -then a proper verb- per unit, no matter how complicated it could be. The rest are just verboides (gerundio, participio, infinitivo):

(han podido/han sido capaces) de comprar = they have been able to buy
los han estado engañando haciéndoles pensar eso = they have been deceiving them by making them think that

Perikles
May 24, 2012, 03:12 AM
In Spanish there's only one conjugated verb -then a proper verb- per unit, no matter how complicated it could be. The rest are just verboides (gerundio, participio, infinitivo):Do you use the concept of a finite verb (= your conjugated verb)? Other bits are non-finite, one of which is the infinitive. A clause must contain exactly one finite verb. Without a finite verb it is a phrase.

aleCcowaN
May 24, 2012, 02:03 PM
Do you use the concept of a finite verb (= your conjugated verb)? Other bits are non-finite, one of which is the infinitive. A clause must contain exactly one finite verb. Without a finite verb it is a phrase.

Formas personales (a.k.a. "formas finitas")
verboides (a.k.a. "formas no finitas")