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Mandar a por vs mandar por

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cmon
December 03, 2008, 02:35 PM
Found both sentences on WordReference.com
La mandé por el pan. I sent her out for bread.
Nos mandaron a por unos huevos. They sent us out for eggs.

Don't understand the difference.

Jessica
December 03, 2008, 02:36 PM
well I think the a is the difference.....:P I don't know either.

CrOtALiTo
December 03, 2008, 02:46 PM
The two phrases mean the same, for example when you sent someone for something, example Te mande a lavar el carro, I sent you washed the car, and when you say Nos mandaron a la escuela, this phrase was a command then someone sent you for something, example Ella nos mando a la escuela, She sent us to the school.

Jessica
December 03, 2008, 03:01 PM
well then, there IS no difference. I knew that, because just one letter, the personal a can't make a big difference. But I wasn't sure. so cmon, there is no difference, really.

Tomisimo
December 03, 2008, 03:41 PM
La mandé por el pan. I sent her out for bread.
Nos mandaron a por unos huevos. They sent us out for eggs.
I'm most familiar with Mexican Spanish, and honestly I don't think I've ever heard the version with a. I would normally say mandar por, not mandar a por.

It would be great to get a native speaker's opinion on this.

CrOtALiTo
December 03, 2008, 04:02 PM
It was your own view point, I respect that.

Rusty
December 03, 2008, 04:35 PM
I think it's a regional thing, and that only Spaniards say the extra preposition.
The first sentence came from Pocket Oxford Spanish Dictionary, published in the UK. The second sentence came from Diccionario Espasa Concise: Español-Inglés English-Spanish, published in Madrid, Spain.

cmon
December 03, 2008, 06:01 PM
Sosia (native language-spanish of Spain) had corrected a practice sentence of mine by adding an a after mandar.
Su novio despreciable la mandó (a) por cerveza y cigarillos.
Just a regional thang.

sosia
December 04, 2008, 12:29 AM
I have already answered this in the other thread :D
Yes, we usually use it with a. Without "a" it's OK and understood.
Reason: I don't know. :D
The next explanation its only "free-thinking" :D
"mandar a por cigarros"
"Mandar a hacer un recado"
"Mandar a hacer una tarea"
Perhaps saying "a" you say you have already given the task to one person.
"Mandar por cigarrillos" it's more a wish (something to be done.) than something you have already ordered.
Must be something regional.

Saludos :D

Elaina
December 04, 2008, 12:39 PM
I have already answered this in the other thread :D
Yes, we usually use it with a. Without "a" it's OK and understood.
Reason: I don't know. :D
The next explanation its only "free-thinking" :D
"mandar a por cigarros" :bad::bad:
"Mandar a hacer un recado"
"Mandar a hacer una tarea"
Perhaps saying "a" you say you have already given the task to one person.
"Mandar por cigarrillos" it's more a wish (something to be done.) than something you have already ordered.
Must be something regional.

Saludos :D

Somehow ... mandar a por cigarros.......just doesn't sound right and it doesn't make sense to me.

:twocents:

Tomisimo
December 04, 2008, 02:00 PM
Somehow ... mandar a por cigarros.......just doesn't sound right and it doesn't make sense to me.

:twocents:
It doesn't sound right to me either, but it's normal in Spain. Gotta love those regional differences. :)

CrOtALiTo
December 05, 2008, 03:43 PM
The sentece correct is MANDAR POR CIGARROS, OR MANDAR POR UNOS CIGARROS.

Tomisimo
December 05, 2008, 04:42 PM
En México lo corrrecto es "mandar por", pero como se ha explicado, en España se puede decir "madar por" o "mandar a por". Los dos son correctos.