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irmamar
August 29, 2009, 12:11 AM
You're welcome. But avoid that sort of pronunciation, that's good to know because you'll understand what they say, but good pronunciation is better ;)

Elaina
August 29, 2009, 12:13 AM
Oh definitely! I don't think I would ever use the word but its always good to know what it means when I hear it.

;)

EmpanadaRica
August 29, 2009, 03:14 AM
Somehow the word 'fetidez' doesn't seem compatible to the notion of 'rankness' and 'smelliness' to me.. :thinking: :D

Perhaps I am associating it with the French 'la Fête' (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/F%C3%AAte) also used in my native language (feteren = to celebrate something or someone).

So I was expecting something festive and joyful.. imagine my surprise.. :o :sad: :p

AngelicaDeAlquezar
August 29, 2009, 08:36 AM
@Elaina: Es muy común que la gente pronuncie "jediondo"... quizás hay más personas que lo dicen así que los que saben que se escribe con h y no con j... No hay mucho qué hacer, salvo que si lo pronuncias como ellos, tú sí sabes que no es la palabra que está en el diccionario. :D

chileno
August 29, 2009, 08:43 AM
Okay - so a couple of questions: from YOUR corrections to MY sentence ... shouldn't it be:
Sus zapatillas de gimnasia estuvieron dentro de su casillero por dos meses, hay una gran fetidez.
* zapatillas should be plural?
* I used fetidez because it's the word of the day ... does it NOT work in this sentence?

Es nosotro' lo' chileno' no' comemo' toda' l' ese' :)

Correcto, my typo. And malila is correct hediondez is used more in that context, whereas fetidez is used in the context as explained by her. :rolleyes:

chileno
August 29, 2009, 08:45 AM
:banghead::duh:
You know, I over heard a spanish speaking couple about a terrible smell and dirtiness of the basement of a house. They said something like this.........
"Estaba jediondo y apestaba muy mal"

And I was confused. I couldn't find the word "jediondo" anywhere. From what you have written, it seems the correct word is hediondo but they were pronouncing the english "h" which I interpreted as being a "j" since the "h" is silent. Am I making sense? Do you know what I'm saying?

Oh well. At least now I know. But I am still confused.....is it written hediondo but pronounced "jediondo"?

:thinking:

I have heard people from Mexico, here in the US, to say it that way.

Which is totally incorrect... :)

irmamar
August 29, 2009, 10:06 AM
I have heard people from Mexico, here in the US, to say it that way.

Which is totally incorrect... :)

Well, it all depends. For instance, in Andalucía, where Andaluz is spoken (a Spanish dialect), there are places where /h/ is pronounced with aspiration, similar to /j/. For instance, they say "me pegué una jartá" (me pegué una hartada/hartazgo). Really this is not incorrect, this is the way of speaking in certain areas. You should learn that way if you want to speak Andaluz, but if you want to speak Spanish, then you must avoid this :)

This /h/ with aspiration is not used with all words, for instance "hijo" is not pronounced [jijo], but [ijo] (sorry, no IPA)

chileno
August 30, 2009, 09:08 AM
Well, it all depends. For instance, in Andalucía, where Andaluz is spoken (a Spanish dialect), there are places where /h/ is pronounced with aspiration, similar to /j/. For instance, they say "me pegué una jartá" (me pegué una hartada/hartazgo). Really this is not incorrect, this is the way of speaking in certain areas. You should learn that way if you want to speak Andaluz, but if you want to speak Spanish, then you must avoid this :)

This /h/ with aspiration is not used with all words, for instance "hijo" is not pronounced [jijo], but [ijo] (sorry, no IPA)

It depends if Andaluz is one of the dialects considered official language for Spain... It used to be incorrect when Castilian was the only official language...¿no? ;)

pjt33
August 31, 2009, 11:05 AM
pjt33 - what do you mean by "sustantivo cognado"?
In English, cognate noun.
See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cognate_(etymology)

irmamar
September 03, 2009, 08:58 AM
It depends if Andaluz is one of the dialects considered official language for Spain... It used to be incorrect when Castilian was the only official language...¿no? ;)

Dialects are not considered official in Spain. Just languages (and not all of them are official). The difference between a dialect and a language is that in dialects mother language still exists, but it doesn't in languages. For instance: Spanish, Galician and Catalonian comes from Latin. As Latin doesn't already exist, these old dialects have become into languages (never think that Catalonian or Galician comes from Spanish, this is a great mistake :eek: ). As Andaluz is a dialect from Spanish (and Spanish still exists), it's not considered a language (even there are opinions that say that Andaluz isn't a dialect, but a way of speaking (variante dialectal o habla andaluza), but I don't agree with them; anyway this is another question) ;)

brute
September 07, 2009, 04:05 PM
DOH! :rolleyes: That was a mere spelling error. I know that it's zapatos. Gah! Anyway - is the rest of the sentence okay?
Do you mean a smelling error? If so you have made another spelling error!!!:D:D:yuck:

laepelba
September 08, 2009, 01:11 PM
(sigh..............) Thanks for helping. It's the gender/number endings that I always seem to miss.............

brute
September 09, 2009, 01:20 PM
Dialects are not considered official in Spain. Just languages (and not all of them are official). The difference between a dialect and a language is that in dialects mother language still exists, but it doesn't in languages. For instance: Spanish, Galician and Catalonian comes from Latin. As Latin doesn't already exist, these old dialects have become into languages (never think that Catalonian or Galician comes from Spanish, this is a great mistake :eek: ). As Andaluz is a dialect from Spanish (and Spanish still exists), it's not considered a language (even there are opinions that say that Andaluz isn't a dialect, but a way of speaking (variante dialectal o habla andaluza), but I don't agree with them; anyway this is another question) ;)

I recently heard a good definition for a language:
It is merely a dialect with its own army and navy. In other words the difference is merely a political decision. The dominant speech varient becomes the official one.

CrOtALiTo
September 09, 2009, 07:25 PM
Smelliness could be replaced with bad smell.

Because they mean at most the same.:)

pjt33
September 10, 2009, 01:08 AM
Brute, depends what you mean by "dominant". It's the prestige variant which becomes the official one, not necessarily the most widely spoken.