Tomisimo |
May 15, 2009 09:02 AM |
Quote:
Originally Posted by irmamar
(Post 35915)
The verb is "llamar", the pronominal form is "llamarse". This is not a reflexive form, because I don't "me llamo a mí misma"
Reflexive: me lavo, me peino, me miro (al espejo), me visto... (a mí misma)
Pronominal: me voy, me llamo, me acerco, me duermo, me despierto (no a mí misma)
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(For learners of Spanish) To distinguish between reflexive verbs and pronomial verbs, just think who the agent and patient of the verb is (semantically)-- if it's the same person then it's a reflexive verb. The agent would typically be the subject of the sentence and the patient the direct object. So with "me lavo", I am both the agent and the patient (I'm doing the washing and I am being washed). With "me voy", it's a little different in that there is no direct object; there is no patient, so it's not reflexive.
So the distinction between relexive and pronomial verbs is valid. That being said, there is a second definition of "reflexive verbs" (at least in English). In this definition, any verb whose grammatical object is a reflexive pronoun can be considered a reflexive verb. This is a looser definition than above, and encompasses both reflexive and pronomial verbs and puts them into one group called reflexive verbs. With "me lavo" you can see that "me" is a reflexive pronoun and is the grammatical object (but not the direct object) of the verb form. Thus under this second definition, it is also a reflexive verb. In any case, for English-speaking people learning Spanish, there isn't much need to keep these two classes of verbs separate since they work the same way. So even if you want to keep the distinction between pronomial and reflexive verbs, it is useful for simplicity's sake to lump them together for the purposes of learning how to conjugate and use them.
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