Fetidez - Page 2

You're welcome. But avoid that sort of pronunciation, that's good to know because you'll understand what they say, but good pronunciation is better ;)

Oh definitely! I don't think I would ever use the word but its always good to know what it means when I hear it.

;)

Somehow the word 'fetidez' doesn't seem compatible to the notion of 'rankness' and 'smelliness' to me.. :thinking: :D

Perhaps I am associating it with the French 'la Fête' also used in my native language (feteren = to celebrate something or someone).

So I was expecting something festive and joyful.. imagine my surprise.. :o :sad: :p

@Elaina: Es muy común que la gente pronuncie "jediondo"... quizás hay más personas que lo dicen así que los que saben que se escribe con h y no con j... No hay mucho qué hacer, salvo que si lo pronuncias como ellos, tú sí sabes que no es la palabra que está en el diccionario. :D

Es nosotro' lo' chileno' no' comemo' toda' l' ese' :)

Correcto, my typo. And malila is correct hediondez is used more in that context, whereas fetidez is used in the context as explained by her. :rolleyes:

I have heard people from Mexico, here in the US, to say it that way.

Which is totally incorrect... :)

Well, it all depends. For instance, in Andalucía, where Andaluz is spoken (a Spanish dialect), there are places where /h/ is pronounced with aspiration, similar to /j/. For instance, they say "me pegué una jartá" (me pegué una hartada/hartazgo). Really this is not incorrect, this is the way of speaking in certain areas. You should learn that way if you want to speak Andaluz, but if you want to speak Spanish, then you must avoid this :)

This /h/ with aspiration is not used with all words, for instance "hijo" is not pronounced [jijo], but [ijo] (sorry, no IPA)

It depends if Andaluz is one of the dialects considered official language for Spain... It used to be incorrect when Castilian was the only official language...¿no? ;)

In English, cognate noun.
See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cognate_(etymology)

Dialects are not considered official in Spain. Just languages (and not all of them are official). The difference between a dialect and a language is that in dialects mother language still exists, but it doesn't in languages. For instance: Spanish, Galician and Catalonian comes from Latin. As Latin doesn't already exist, these old dialects have become into languages (never think that Catalonian or Galician comes from Spanish, this is a great mistake :eek: ). As Andaluz is a dialect from Spanish (and Spanish still exists), it's not considered a language (even there are opinions that say that Andaluz isn't a dialect, but a way of speaking (variante dialectal o habla andaluza), but I don't agree with them; anyway this is another question) ;)

Do you mean a smelling error? If so you have made another spelling error!!!:D:D:yuck:

(sigh..............) Thanks for helping. It's the gender/number endings that I always seem to miss.............

I recently heard a good definition for a language:
It is merely a dialect with its own army and navy. In other words the difference is merely a political decision. The dominant speech varient becomes the official one.

Smelliness could be replaced with bad smell.

Because they mean at most the same.:)

Brute, depends what you mean by "dominant". It's the prestige variant which becomes the official one, not necessarily the most widely spoken.