Is this correct?

Is this correct?
 

Is it right to say:

Cocinamos para comeís.

to mean "we cook for you guys to eat."?

Cheers,
Lloyd

No, it's not.

Cocinamos para que comáis (used in Spain)

Cocinamos para que ustedes coman (used in Latin America)

You need to put "que" there and the second verb must be in the subjunctive.
;)

Así es, para que comáis.

Con tilde en la "a" pues es aguda terminada en "s".

Me recuerda a los versos de Ruben D. (una asociación muy libre, claro)

... como el oso hace, como el jabalí,
que para vivir, tiene que matar...

In Spain so is spoken, anyway here in Mexico is it said like to Luna's Azul answer, her answer is correct and most accurate.


Sincerely yours.

Yes, CrOtALiTo... "para que ustedes coman" is the common in México y many Latin American zones...

In Argentina... "para que vos comas" or "para que vos comás"? (Not sure how they actually pronounce this one...)

I hope I am not going over Lloyd's head now... but I'd say that, besides the many, many variations in accent and ways of expression of the many Spanish speaking areas... once you get your basics, it's is interesting to learn how people speaks in Argentina (and in Barcelona, as there I met with many Argentinians...)

Neither applicable with subject "you guys".

But applicable for "you" singular, right?

Vos definitely takes the place of tú in Argentina, but Vds is used the
same as it is in the rest of Latin America.

Yes, it is.

It's common usage in Argentina and Uruguay and, although used in most countries in Central America and in parts of Colombia, at least in the latter, it's not considered to be formal or eloquent.
;)

That's correct

I understood your commentary.
Although still I haven't clear these rules in my language.
I will do a little investigation about it.


Thank you for your answer.