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Use of "para" with verbs


SPX August 05, 2011 02:44 PM

Use of "para" with verbs
 
Okay, so I know that:

Necesito comer = I need to eat

Necesito - I need
comer = to eat

Simple.

But I also know that if I want to say, "I am here to learn Spanish" then it's "Estoy aquí para aprender español."

Can someone explain to me this use of "para" and when you do, and do not, put it in front of a verb?

Luna Azul August 05, 2011 03:01 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by SPX (Post 115057)
Okay, so I know that:

Necesito comer = I need to eat

Necesito - I need
comer = to eat

Simple.

But I also know that if I want to say, "I am here to learn Spanish" then it's "Estoy aquí para aprender español."

Can someone explain to me this use of "para" and when you do, and do not, put it in front of a verb?

The use of "para" depends on the verb of the sentence, not the infinitive.

As opposed to "need" in English, the verb "necesitar" doesn't use "para". Also:

Quiero comer - debo comer - espero comer.. etc.

The use of "para", in your second sentence, is determined by the term "Estoy aquí..". Without the preposition it would be awkward.. "estoy aquí aprender":eek: = "I'm here learn".:confused:

SPX August 05, 2011 03:13 PM

Hmm, well that's even more confusing to me, because "estoy aquí para aprender" translates out in my head as "I am here for to learn."

I have always been under the impression that "to" is built into all infinitives.

necesitar = TO need
hablar = TO speak
querer = TO want
aprender = TO learn

I mean, what if I was saying, "I need to learn to play the piano." Would it be, "Necesito PARA aprender tocar el piano"? Lots of verbs there. . .

wrholt August 05, 2011 05:10 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by SPX (Post 115059)
Hmm, well that's even more confusing to me, because "estoy aquí para aprender" translates out in my head as "I am here for to learn."

I have always been under the impression that "to" is built into all infinitives.

necesitar = TO need
hablar = TO speak
querer = TO want
aprender = TO learn

Each verb in Spanish has its own idiosyncratic requirements for how to associate other concepts to it.

Quote:

Originally Posted by SPX (Post 115059)
I mean, what if I was saying, "I need to learn to play the piano." Would it be, "Necesito PARA aprender tocar el piano"? Lots of verbs there. . .


Necesitar allows infinitives (which also function as nouns) as complements, and they must follow immediately. Necesitar may also take a prepositional phrase introduced by "para" as an adverb of reason or purpose: Necesito ir a casa para dormir = I need to go home in order to sleep.


Aprender allows infinitives as complements, but requires that the preposition 'a' link the two.

Tocar does NOT allow infinitives as complements.

Necesito aprender a tocar el piano. = I need to learn to play the piano.

Rusty August 05, 2011 05:11 PM

Your translation of 'para aprender' should be 'in order to learn'. ;)

The preposition 'to' is NOT built into the infinitive in Spanish. That's an English 'feature'. English also has bare infinitives (no 'to' preceding them). In Spanish, ALL infinitives are 'bare' (they never have a built-in preposition).
necesitar = need
hablar = speak
etc.

Verbs like necesitar have no preposition to introduce the infinitive that follows. The same goes for querer, desear, and poder. There are others.

Certain prepositions are required after some verbs, and they won't necessarily be the same preposition that we use in English.
aprender a hablar = (to) learn to speak
optar por aprender = (to) opt for learning
pensar en ir = (to) think about going
dudar en escribir = (to) hesitate to write
soñar con vivir en la playa = (to) dream of living on the beach

Some verbs that require a preposition in English don't have one in Spanish (buscar = search for).

Here's a link that shows what prepositions follow verbs.

AngelicaDeAlquezar August 05, 2011 05:15 PM

@SPX: :thinking: I think focusing on the verb is wrong. It's the action as a whole what determines which preposition to use.

"Estoy aquí" is already an action and the purpose of your being here is what introduces the need of "para".

If you say "yo hablo", why you're stating the fact that you're talking will determine what preposition or complement you will need, like in "Yo hablo para ser escuchado." (I talk to be heard.)

"Yo quiero" needs a direct object, so you say "yo quiero un helado" (I want an ice-cream), "yo quiero ir a la playa" (I want to go to the beach). Same for "yo aprendo".


This thread may help you understand some of the uses of "para" and "por".

SPX August 05, 2011 05:55 PM

Clearly this is going to be harder than I thought. Just when I think I'm going I'm starting to learn something the bottom falls out.

I mean, "soñar con vivir en la playa" makes no sense to me as a translation of "(to) dream of living on the beach." I look at that and it says, "To dream with to live on the beach." I mean, even if vivir translates to "living" (which I don't get) why is it not "soñar DE vivir en la playa"?

Well I will . . . ponder this . . . and see what I come up with. That is, if I don't blow my brains out first.

But thanks Angelica and Rusty. You have both been very helpful.

Rusty August 05, 2011 06:34 PM

Avoid translating word-for-word and you'll save yourself a lot of grief. Just learn what prepositions are used with what verbs.

The Spanish infinitive doubles as the English gerund. That's why '(to) dream of living on the beach' is the correct translation of 'soñar con vivir en la playa'.

The infinitive is not a verb. It is a non-finite verbal in both Spanish and English, and it always functions as a noun.

The English gerund 'living' (gerunds are verbals that end in -ing) follows the preposition 'of' in the English sentence. It is the prepositional object, in this case. A gerund always acts as a noun.
The English full infinitive (the ones with the preceding 'to') cannot be substituted for the gerund, but both act as nouns.

The Spanish infinitive 'vivir' follows the preposition 'con' in the Spanish sentence. It is performing the same function as the English gerund - it is the object of the preposition.

SPX August 05, 2011 06:52 PM

So if vivir also functions as "living", then does that mean:

hablar=talking
correr=running
escribir=writing
leer=reading

etc?

Rusty August 05, 2011 07:03 PM

Yes, when used as nouns. They also mean (to) talk, etc., also nouns.
But, don't confuse the present participle with the gerund.

Me gusta leer. = I like reading.
Me gusta leer. = I like to read.

In the English sentence, the underlined words function as the direct object (a noun). The gerund appears in the first example, the infinitive in the second. In the Spanish sentence, the infinitive is used for both translations. (In the Spanish sentence, the word 'leer' is the subject - still a noun, though.)

SPX August 05, 2011 07:12 PM

Interesting. I never realized that. Thanks.

Rusty August 05, 2011 07:19 PM

You're welcome.

There are many posts here in the forums that discuss gerunds, participles (present participle and past participle), and infinitives. All are categorized as non-finite verbals. They stem from verbs, may look like verbs, but never function as a verb.
The Spanish equivalents are also discussed.

SPX August 06, 2011 10:24 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Rusty (Post 115063)
Here's a link that shows what prepositions follow verbs.

This is extremely helpful and interesting, by the way. Thanks.

Rusty August 06, 2011 10:26 PM

You're welcome. :)

SPX August 06, 2011 10:31 PM

^^^ On that same note. . .

If I want to say:

"I am going to try to write this e-mail only in Spanish"

would it be. . .

"Voy a tratar de escribir este e-mail soló en español"?

Rusty August 06, 2011 10:36 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by SPX (Post 115098)
If I want to say:

"I am going to try to write this e-mail only in Spanish"

would it be. . .

"Voy a tratar de escribir este email (correo electrónico) sólo en español"?

Good job! :thumbsup: Just two corrections.

SPX August 06, 2011 10:38 PM

Ha ha. Thanks.

I think that "e-mail" is pretty well accepted even among native speakers though, is it not?

Kind of like how "okay" has also largely been appropriated into common speech.

EDIT:

Been looking over this. . .

http://spanish.about.com/od/historyo...sh/a/email.htm

SPX August 07, 2011 10:15 PM

^^^ Nothing else on this, I'm guessing? No input from native speakers? No feedback re: the article?

Luna Azul August 08, 2011 10:05 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by SPX (Post 115179)
^^^ Nothing else on this, I'm guessing? No input from native speakers? No feedback re: the article?

Yes, SPX, "email" is very commonly used bt Spanish speakers, only because it's understandable in every language, I guess. I say it all the time, but I'm also aware that there's an expression in Spanish that's the one we should be using to preserve the 'purity' of the language.

Many of us Spanish speakers try to keep it right because our language is important to us.

:)

SPX August 08, 2011 10:21 AM

Okay, thanks. "Correo electrónico" just seems like an awful lot to say if you want to talk about an "e-mail," ha ha.

As for the purity argument, well, I suppose. But e-mail is a relatively modern American invention, so I guess even if we're talking about "correo electrónico" we're just talking about a recently added borrowed word that is simply a Spanish translation of e-mail's proper name in English, "electronic mail," which was itself shortened because it was found to be a bit too cumbersome.


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