Has me confused / has confused me

Has me confused / has confused me
 

Hello!

I was reading some messages here on the forum when I came across this:

...to a point in my text book that has me confused

It sounded so weird to me that I have to ask... how common is that? It doesn't look like the standard English word order to an intermediate English student (me).

I would have said "it has confused me". Is there any difference in meaning in both structures, or is it just another way to express the idea?

Thanks in advance and I'm sorry, I don't know how to quote things on this board.

I'll post the whole sentence here, so it will be easier for other users to see what it means: :)

Of course, I also would like to know what native English speakers have to say about this, but I think it's the same difference in Spanish between: "me ha confundido" and "me tiene confundido(a)". :thinking:

Absolutely correct. Both are perfectly correct English, and parallel to Spanish.

Had me confused = had me (in a state of being) confused.

I agree with Perikles: both forms are also equally common in the US.

"It had confused me" suggests the moment when the confusion was created.

"It had me confused" suggests the ongoing state that remains after "It had confused me".

Well, this is so fascinating!! I would never have thought that "me tiene confundido" had such an equivalent in English.

Thanks a lot for your answers, Angelica, Perikles, and wrholt.

Love guessing right, thank you! :D