Several verbs

Several verbs
 

"Me lo pediste tú", does it mean "I asked you."?

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"Me sobaste de lo lindo", i don't know what "de lo lindo" means.
You fumbled... pretty" that is all i can translate from this.

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"Qué detalle por tu parte." Doesn't detalle mean detail?
Finally, i think this phrase would be translated as "How nice of you", or?

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"Te apuesto mi ovario izquierdo..."
I think it means "I bet my left ovary..", but why isn't it "Me apuesto..."?

Okay, that's it.

Thank you in advance.

From my dictionary.

te apuesto means I bet you...

te apuesto lo que quieras (a) que no viene I bet o I'll bet you anything you like he won't come; apostaría cualquier cosa (a) que se ha vuelto a olvidar I bet you anything she's forgotten again

And again, thank you very much for you quick respond, Perikles. It's very thorough.

Sorry, I disagree with the first one: "Me lo pediste tú" means "you were the one who asked me".

And I would like to add that "apostarse algo a sí mismo" has no interest, since you'd be paying yourself. The usual thing is "apostarle algo a alguien". :)

Would be "preguntar" wrong in this case? I also thought, "lo" always refers to something "it". For instance, "Puedo verlo" etc.

"Preguntar" and "pedir" mean different things, even though they often are translated using "ask". "Preguntar" = "ask (a question)", while "pedir" = "request/ask for an object or an action". So:

I asked you whether whether you called Mary = Le Te pregunté si le llamaste a María.
I asked you to call Mary = Te pedí que llamaras a María.
I asked you for a pencil = Te pedí un lápiz.

"Lo" can refer to any masculine singular or neuter direct object, although some speakers from some regions prefer "le" for masculine singular direct objects. "Me lo pediste tú" might be translated more accurately as "It was you who asked me for it" or "It was you who asked me to do it", where "lo" refers to whatever you requested.

Awesome, thank you.

I'm learning the European Spanish, where "le" refers to masculine and "lo" to neutral, i think.

The verb 'llamar' takes a direct object when it means 'telefonear'. So, 'lo' or 'la' is correct. However, in some regions, some people will substitute 'le' for 'lo' if the pronoun refers to a male person. This phenomenon is called 'el leísmo'.

From RAE:

@Wrholt: Thank you for clarifying. :rose:

Only a little side note: "Te pregunté si llamaste a María" or "le pregunté si llamó (usted) a María"... unless the speaker were asking a third person if you called María: "le pregunté (a Juan) si (tú) llamaste a María".
(I'm avoiding the "redundant" pronoun here, because of Rusty's note, and sentences sound better like this for me as well.) ;)

@Rusty: You're right. :thumbsup:
Although it's incorrect, in many regions (at least in Mexico), daily speech is flawed by "leísmo": "te pregunté si le llamaste a María".
Some of us prefer to avoid the use of pronoun, as I wrote the previous examples.

Side note: Mexicans do not use a redundant pronoun when it's a direct object one (lo, los, la, las):
- ¿Ya lo abriste el regalo? :bad: ¿Ya abriste el regalo? :good:
- Pregunté si la llamaste a María. :bad: Pregunté si llamaste a María.
- No lo pidas el libro a la biblioteca. :bad: No pidas el libro a la biblioteca. :good:
- Voy a pedirla la pizza por teléfono. :bad: Voy a pedir la pizza por teléfono. :good:

I don't think this statement is completely correct.

Human male:
a. Vi a Juan -> le vi. = I saw John -> I saw him
b. Vi al bueno -> le vi. = I saw the good one (male person) -> I saw him.

Non-human masculine noun:
Vi un lápiz -> lo ví. = I saw a pencil -> I saw it.
Vi el bueno -> lo vi. = I saw the good one (thing) -> I saw it.

Neuter:
Vi lo bueno -> lo vi. = I saw the good (abstract noun derived from adjective) -> I saw it.

All that is good but:

le/lo ví (a Juan/él) = I saw (to) him. (right?)

Also for her

Le/la ví (a María/ella) = I saw (to) her

Le ví a usted = I saw you (formal) Latin American Spanish (I am not sure if this form is used in Spain)

What's the matter with me? Of course you are right. :banghead::banghead:

"Le" - masculine/feminine - indirect objective - dative.
"La" - feminine - indirect objective - accusative.
"Le" - masculine - indirect objective - accusative.
Finally, "Lo" - neutral. Like "Me lo ofrecieron" or "Lo acepté".

This is it according to my grammar book.

Sorrt multi-quote doesn't work on my phone.

@chileno

To the last sentence. I don't think it's commonly used in Spain.

Well, first, if you are going to name the cases, then a direct object is always accusative and indirect dative, although this is a question of terminology.

Secondly, my grammar book gives lo as the masculine direct object, 'a system regarded by many as standard'. It then goes on to say there is a lot of variation: lo(s) and la(s) often replaced by le(s) when referring to people, known as leísmo. Conversely, in South America, there is a loísmo using lo and la instead of le.

Since we seem to have a mixture, and preponderance of the latter on this forum**, you will not get a decisive answer. All very annoying. :(:)

**That's why I respond to your questions first, because everybody else is still asleep. :lol::lol:

@Perikles: No pasa nada. :rose:
But the decisive answer will have to be the choice of the learners: either they decide to stick to the right grammar or learn the usage from the region where they're learning the most.

I wouldn't worry much about this issue; even when using the "right" pronouns in the "wrong" regions, people will still understand and many even will reflect on the fact that they might be using them wrongly. ;)

Leísmo tolerado. Propio de áreas leístas, como la Meseta Central española.