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Does pedir always need an indirect object pronoun?
So ... pedir is transitive, ie. needs at least one object.
I thought that if there was an indirect object then an iop also needs be used, even when it seems redundant: Eg. Le pidió $100 a mi amigo. My question is - is the iop optional or not? I ask because I've definitely seen or heard a few examples of it being left out (which is to be expected I guess as there's no language where all it's speakers speak it gramatically perfectly) but then I recently came across a dictionary entry under pedir that said: pedir algo a alguien (instead of pedirle) Does that mean you could just as correctly say ... Pidió $100 a mi amigo? It just doesn't seem right to me, have I missed something? Thanks in advance for any light that can be shed on the subject. |
Quote:
I don't know if there is a particular rule. Preguntaré a los especialistas. Les preguntaré a los especialistas. (I'd use the second example, but the first is also fine...) Y recuerda: Contra el vicio de pedir, está la virtud de no dar. ;) :D |
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