Just have

Just have
 

¿Cómo se dice..?

"If I got to your house for 2.00, they would have only just finished eating and wouldn't have time to play."

"Si fui a tu casa para las 2.00, ni bien habrán terminado comiendo y no tendrían tiempo para jugar."

Si fuera a tu casa a las dos, apenas habrían terminado de comer y no tendrían tiempo de jugar.

¿Cuál es exactamente el sentido de "got" aquí?

Edito: Veo que Poli y yo nos hemos cruzado.

Un saludo cordial.

Come?

"if I got to your house..." sounds to me more like "si me cayera por su casa..." but that's maybe regional.

Speaking of regional, I understand that "for 2.00" as more imprecise than "at 2 OK", am I right? If I am, that "... hacia las 2..." sounds wrong to me, is it an españolismo? I'd say "... a eso de las 2..." but I don't know the regional scope of this.

"... no tendrían tiempo de jugar" ---> they need to play some time before I come. With "para" it is a bit more ambiguous, but it is understood mainly in the same way. With "de" it sounds more as a condition, with "para" it sounds more as a goal.

As a native English speaker, I can tell you that "for 2:00" is something you will never hear. "at 2:00" is what would be used if you want to be exactly at 2:00 whereas "around 2:00" is used if you want to say you might be there a little bit before or after 2:00

Thank you. Can't we say "I'll get there by 2:00" too? It was that what I was thinking like "a eso de las 2".

"I'll get there by two" is very common. Use it if you want to say that you will arrive before or at 2:00. Don't use it if you are going to arrive after 2:00 though.

To my (northeastern US) ears, "if I got to your house" = "if I arrived at your house".

In the OP's original context, I hear "for 2:00" as referring to one of a number of possible times under discussion, while saying either "at 2:00" or "by 2:00" suggests that only one time is under discussion.

However, the OP is from the UK; there is a certain amount of regional variation in how prepositions are used in English.

so I reckon "by two" means "a las dos, a más tardar"

Yes. I was thinking in the nuance of using the versatile, omnipresent, chameleonic verb "get" to say this. There are a lot of regionalisms "si te caigo a las 2", "si me aparezco a las dos por tu casa", etc.

In that case, the original Jellybaby's "para las dos" is spot on.

Thank you both. Very interesting.

exactly

I am a native English speaker and where I am from we say "for 2.00" it means it is the time that I would be aiming to get to the persons house!

"To get to a persons house" is to arrive at their house. If I say "If I arrive at your house" it sounds to formal.

"If I got to you house for 2.00" (Context a friend who was going to look after my kids had originally said that I could pick them up at 2.00 but then later said "No let's make it later more like 4.00 so they have time to play." I reply "Ok, I was thinking that if I got (Arrived) at your house for 2.00 (At 2.00) they would have only just finished eating and wouldn't have time to play."

Si llegara a tu/su casa a eso de las 2, recién/apenas habrían terminado de comer y no tendrían tiempo para jugar

"A eso de la/s [hora]" means either it's a past event and the speaker hadn't a watch or clock available and s/he's making an estimation, or regarding a future event it's a rough estimation, just an intention, or eventually punctuality is not sought nor required.