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-   -   Él me hace nerviosa... (https://forums.tomisimo.org/showthread.php?t=7478)

Él me hace nerviosa...


NiCACHiCA March 25, 2010 12:15 PM

Él me hace nerviosa...
 
"Él me hace nerviosa. Cuando le veo mi corazón lata más rapido."

Do the sentences make sense? Also, is it necessary to add "a él" after "le veo" or is the implication there because of the first sentence?

AngelicaDeAlquezar March 25, 2010 12:51 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by NiCACHiCA (Post 77634)
"Él me hace pone nerviosa. Cuando le lo veo mi corazón late más rápido."

Do the sentences make sense? Also, is it necessary to add "a él" after "le veo" or is the implication there because of the first sentence?

Your intuition for both sentences is good. :thumbsup:

"Poner nervioso (a alguien)" is the usual expression for "making (someone) nervous".
In Latin American Spanish, one doesn't say "le veo", but "lo/la veo".

CrOtALiTo March 25, 2010 01:50 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by NiCACHiCA (Post 77634)
"Él me hace nerviosa. Cuando le veo mi corazón lata más rapido."

Do the sentences make sense? Also, is it necessary to add "a él" after "le veo" or is the implication there because of the first sentence?

It does make sense.
Literally it should written El me hace sentir nerviosa.
He makes feel nervous.

I hope that can help you.

NiCACHiCA March 26, 2010 12:02 PM

Thank you both!! The sentences just popped into my head and I thought I'd get some response as to how well my thinking in Spanish is!!

Also, thanks Angelica for the tips concerning Latin American Spanish! I always wonder how different LA Spanish is when reading stuff on here. (I honestly don't think I'll use my Spanish anywhere but in Central America.)
You actually answered another question I had about using "lo" to reference "him". I've heard it on my favorite telenovela (Mas Sabe el Diablo...which is "set" in NY) and it confused me because I thought it was supposed to be "le" (for both "him" and "her"?)... Although I do use "la" when talking to my Nicaraguan friends to reference "her", I guess because I've heard them do it and I was mimicking their use of it!??:)

Rusty March 27, 2010 12:19 AM

Ver takes a direct object. The direct object pronouns are lo and la (in the third person). Angelica's statement about 'Latin American Spanish not using le' refers to the use of le as a direct object pronoun (replacing lo), which is mostly done in Spain. This is called leísmo.

AngelicaDeAlquezar March 27, 2010 06:52 AM

:rose: Thank you, Rusty... I was trying to figure out how to explain. :D

NiCACHiCA March 29, 2010 05:19 PM

Thanks Rusty and Angelica!! Obviously, I have a lot to study up on! :o


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