Quote:
Originally Posted by LearningSpanish
I have recently read 'he had been snatched.....' translated as
'se había librado por los pelos de la multitud enfurecida.
If I was trying to translate it I would probably have tried to use arrebatar
Había sido arrebatado. perhaps?
Would that work? Why did the translator use 'se había librado' - so the 'been' bit doesn't need to be translated?
Se había by itself is a good translation for 'he had been'?
Thanks for your thoughts
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The translation is a perfectly normal translation equivalent, but it does not have the same grammatical structure as the source. A more-literal reading of the translation is:
"He had escaped by the hairs from the angry crowd." = "He had barely manage to escape from the angry crowd.
librarse = "to escape, to get out of"