Demalas

[Rusty]

Todavía tengo dudas.

Antes, hablaste de demelas como si fuera un sustantivo (una palabra llana, con acento en la sílaba penúltima). Pues, así me imaginaba porque no hiciste ningún cambio cuando Chileno sugerió que quizá era el imperativo de dar (con pronombres adjuntos) y que debe llevarse una tilde en la primera sílaba.

En el texto oculto, usaste demelas como si fuera un verbo y un artículo juntados. ¿Es eso el 'doble sentido' a que te referiste antes - usar un verbo y un artículo como si fueran una sola palabra? Me parece una trampa, un engaño, un "truco sucio".

Me imagino que solo hay una manera de pronunciar "la palabra" - con el acento en la primera sílaba, ¿no? Entonces, ¿por qué juntar las dos palabras en primera instancia?
¿No es más claro escribir deme las?

[CrOtALiTo]

You would need to be Mexican to understand the mean of the word.

I don't believe that you understand me.

I don't find other way to explain you it.

[poli]

Originally Posted by CrOtALiTo

You would need to be Mexican to understand the mean of the word.

I don't believe that you understand me.

I don't find other way to explain you it.

Lo que quieres decir es démelas. Démelas y demelas son dos cosas distintas. Demelas, sugún lo que entiendo es un apellido.
¿No usarias dámelas si quieres decir algo vulgar? Démelas me parece un poquito formal para asuntos sexuales.

[chileno]

Originally Posted by poli

Lo que quieres decir es démelas. Démelas y demelas son dos cosas distintas. Demelas, sugún lo que entiendo es un apellido.
¿No usarias dámelas si quieres decir algo vulgar? Démelas me parece un poquito formal para asuntos sexuales.

Creo que de las dos formas funciona...

[Rusty]

Originally Posted by CrOtALiTo

You would need to be Mexican to understand the meaning of the word.

Why? I believe I understand what you wrote very well.
What I don't understand is why you insist that the first word is a word.
It isn't.

Your sentences make grammatical sense only if the first word is split into its two parts - an imperative with a suffixed indirect object pronoun (deme), and an article that belongs with the direct object which follows the verb (las). And it is the direct object in these sentences which is vulgar, not the verb or the definite article.
In the absense of the direct object (if you just wanted to insinuate the vulgar word), we would then expect to see a direct object pronoun suffixed to the verb. In that case, you would need an accent in the first syllable, like chileno and poli have said (démelas).

So, your first example should read deme las (insert vulgar direct object here). After the vulgar term has been established, you could just say, "Démelas." That is, of course, if the formal command is worthy of your audience and the vulgar term is plural and femenine.

[CrOtALiTo]

Dear Rusty.

Thank you for the explain that you gave me.

Fist, I know that perhaps is something hard to understand my phrase, I don't know really if the word takes an accent, I guess that yes it takes an accent, but the I said as suffixed to this thread is in revocable because definite a bad action, almost in my country it's so.

Perhaps the word Demelas takes an accent. (Démelas nalgas). This is a clear example of an expression risks in my country, in your country is not so.

I hope you can understand me.

[poli]

Originally Posted by CrOtALiTo

Dear Rusty.

Thank you for the explain that you gave me.

Fist, I know that perhaps is something hard to understand my phrase, I don't know really if the word takes an accent, I guess that yes it takes an accent, but the I said as suffixed to this thread is in revocable because definite a bad action, almost in my country it's so.

Perhaps the word Demelas takes an accent. (Démelas nalgas). This is a clear example of an expression risks in my country, in your country is not so.

I hope you can understand me.

En el mercado se puede decir deme (o dame) las uvas. No es nada vulgar.