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How to pronounce veinte - Page 3

 

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  #41
Old December 30, 2009, 04:41 PM
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AngelicaDeAlquezar AngelicaDeAlquezar is offline
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@Chewy: Do you mean "consonants" ("consonantes" in Spanish)?

No single consonant makes a syllable by itself. They always need a vowel at least.
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  #42
Old December 31, 2009, 12:10 AM
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¡Ah,consonantes! I didn't understand it. Yes, Angélica is right. But there is a consonant that can make a syllable by itself: y when it's isolated, never joined to a vowel (though its sound is like /i/). Thanks, Angélica.
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  #43
Old December 31, 2009, 12:17 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by AngelicaDeAlquezar View Post
@Chewy: Do you mean "consonants" ("consonantes" in Spanish)?

No single consonant makes a syllable by itself. They always need a vowel at least.
Thanks Angelica! *hug you*

Quote:
Originally Posted by irmamar View Post
¡Ah,consonantes! I didn't understand it. Yes, Angélica is right. But there is a consonant that can make a syllable by itself: y when it's isolated, never joined to a vowel (though its sound is like /i/). Thanks, Angélica.
Please forgive for my spelling
Apart from Y, what other consontantes can we make syllable itself?
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  #44
Old December 31, 2009, 12:18 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by chewy View Post
Thanks Angelica! *hug you*



Please forgive for my spelling
Apart from Y, what other consontantes can we make syllable itself?
As Angélica said, none.
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  #45
Old December 31, 2009, 12:26 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by laepelba View Post
I also just this afternoon bugged my Peruvian friend to say "veinte" for me a zillion times and made her say it slow ... and fast ... and had to pull the car over so that I could WATCH her say it ... and then I had her listen to ME say it, the same way, slow, fast, etc. She insists that I'm saying it correctly AND that you all are correct that it's "-eh" more than "-ay". AND .... so I assume that our American/English ears are hearing one thing and our American/English brains might be thinking another. Quite possibly I've been over analyzing this (but you all know me well enough by now that you are already aware of this tendency that I have ... LOL!!) I'll just make sure that I am careful not to pronounce dipthongs when I speak Spanish, because I know that this is a big obstacle to English-speakers learning Spanish.... A young Salvadoran friend of mine says that her biggest pet peave when English speakers try to speak Spanish is the "o"'s.... (But let's not address THAT one at this time nor in this thread......)

Interesting your experience with your Latin friend.

Really you should assess when you ear something more of knowledge with your friends.
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  #46
Old January 27, 2010, 08:22 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by AngelicaDeAlquezar View Post
It is true that there is no difference between "b" and "v" in Spanish, both are pronounced with a soft "b" sound.
(Although many people actually pronounce them differently, it's well understood anyway.)

There must be something wrong with my ear, because I cannot hear the "tay".

As for the recording, as soon as I have access to a microphone, I'll upload the file for you to hear it.
this is an ongoing discussion here, so it's good to see a native speaker saying this

where I live the 'b' is a definite 'v' sound & vice versa

so much so that it sounds like 'una votella de bino'

I was originally taught by a lady from a different area & her 'b's & 'v's were pretty much interchangeable, if there was any noticeable difference it was that they were close to the English pronunciation
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  #47
Old January 27, 2010, 09:36 AM
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Theres no difference between v/b pronunciation. Of course, when you're writing you must follow the rules. There's a difference between vello/bello, vaca/baca, votar/botar, etc. Anyway, the pronunciation is the same.
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  #48
Old January 27, 2010, 01:39 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by xchic View Post
this is an ongoing discussion here, so it's good to see a native speaker saying this

where I live the 'b' is a definite 'v' sound & vice versa

so much so that it sounds like 'una votella de bino'

I was originally taught by a lady from a different area & her 'b's & 'v's were pretty much interchangeable, if there was any noticeable difference it was that they were close to the English pronunciation
Hiya!

There is something called 'complementary distribution of phonemes' that you should take into account.

For instance, in the verb 'beber' the phoneme /b/ is NOT pronounced in the same way in both positions.

I believe that the second /b/ is an allophone (sound variation within a phoneme) because it is in intervocalic position and as all vowels are voiced (vocal cords vibrate when producing them) it becomes voiced as well through the process of assimilation. Therefore, it would be realized as a kind of English /v/.

Anyone has the faintest idea about whether I am right or wrong? cos am just speculating!

Last edited by CarmenCarmona; January 27, 2010 at 01:46 PM. Reason: faltaba la conclusión!
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  #49
Old January 28, 2010, 02:29 AM
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just speculating

/b/ is bilabial (Spanish b and v), while /v/ is labiodental (English v). In Spanish /b/ has two allophones: a plosive [b], when it follows a nasal consonant or after a pause, and the approximant [β] (in the other occasions).

I don't know if there is a Spanish speaker country or region where /v/ is pronounced, but I guess there isn't any.

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  #50
Old January 28, 2010, 03:26 AM
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Yeah, that's the sound I was referring to! thanks!
Didn't remember it was an approximant! (It's been three years since I last studied Spanish phonetics but yesterday I had my English phonetics exam..don't you think I should forget about the subject for a while? haha)

Anyway, so what is the acoustic difference between /b/ and /β/?
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  #51
Old January 28, 2010, 09:32 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by CarmenCarmona View Post
Yeah, that's the sound I was referring to! thanks!
Didn't remember it was an approximant! (It's been three years since I last studied Spanish phonetics but yesterday I had my English phonetics exam..don't you think I should forget about the subject for a while? haha)

Anyway, so what is the acoustic difference between /b/ and /β/?
Good luck with your exam

Quite difficult to explain (above all in English ). As you said before, in [β], /b/ is not so closed as in [b] and I guess it should be voiced between two vowels (though not labiodental, as /v/): avería, abeto. In [b] lips are closer: enviar, embrion. Try to say these words in front of a mirror and look at your lips.

Anyway, I studied Phonetics some years ago

And remember: [alófonos] /fonemas/ (teachers are very strict -and it's the same in English- )
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  #52
Old January 29, 2010, 11:04 AM
CarmenCarmona CarmenCarmona is offline
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Thanks a million!

you are a very...illuminating person! haha or I may be feeling weird because it's the first time I'm on a forum! haha
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  #53
Old January 29, 2010, 12:09 PM
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Illuminating?

Welcome to the forums, then
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  #54
Old January 29, 2010, 12:23 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by CarmenCarmona View Post
or I may be feeling weird because it's the first time I'm on a forum! haha
Beware! After a time on the forum, you will find it completely normal, and that actually speaking to somebody face to face is weird.
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  #55
Old January 29, 2010, 12:28 PM
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Originally Posted by Perikles View Post
Beware! After a time on the forum, you will find it completely normal, and that actually speaking to somebody face to face is weird.
You're right
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  #56
Old January 31, 2010, 02:24 PM
CarmenCarmona CarmenCarmona is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by irmamar View Post
You're right
Quote:
Originally Posted by Perikles View Post
Beware! After a time on the forum, you will find it completely normal, and that actually speaking to somebody face to face is weird.
Well I hope it doesn't get to that extent!
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