No se obligó a nadie a contar su historia

[Michael30000]

Hello everyone,

After a failed stagecoach robbery attempt, the bandits arrive at the house where Lucero is staying. Chiclanero blames Juan Pablo for the incident and states that Juan Pablo “disparó para espantar los mulos y echarlo todo a perder.”

One of the bandits supports Juan Pablo and says:

"Pues yo le he visto luchar y dar muerto a un miquelete. No sé lo que habrá sido antes que hasta ahora no se obligó a nadie a contar su historia. Pero hoy, hoy es tán carne de horca como tú or como yo."

Does "no se obligó a nadie a contar su historia" mean "nobody was forced to tell his (his=Juan Pablo's) story"?

I must say the above interpretation makes little sense to me in the context.

In my opinion it should be something like "... because until now nobody forced him (Juan Pablo) to tell his story." - that makes more sense to me.

Another idea just occurred to me: Can it be a general statement meaning that until now no member of the gang was forced to tell his own story?

https://my.mail.ru/ok/571130741592/video/10/413.html

The scene in question starts at 52.10.

Thank you.

[aleCcowaN]

Originally Posted by Michael30000

Another idea just occurred to me: Can it be a general statement meaning that until now no member of the gang was forced to tell his own story?

Exactly this. No matter what he was as so far no-one had to explain their backgrounds as a condition to be admitted as members of the gang.

[Michael30000]

Originally Posted by aleCcowaN

Exactly this. No matter what he was as so far no-one had to explain their backgrounds as a condition to be admitted as members of the gang.

Thank you, aleC!