From the verb haber (i think).....

From the verb haber (i think).....
 

would anyone know the difference between using "has" and "hayas"

"has" is the tú form in the present form (indicativo)
"hayas" is the tú form in the present form (subjuntivo)

I checked the conjugation chart of "haber". I found them there, "has" and "hayas". I don't know the real difference. I think the difference is in indicativo (indicative) and subjuntivo (subjunctive)
hope this helps :-)

http://www.tomisimo.org/conjugate/haber

Correct. The mood (indicative or subjunctive) is the only difference.

¿Ya has visto esta película?

Have you seen this movie already?

Espero que no hayas visto esta película ya.

I hope that you haven't seen this movie already.


I think those are correct examples. As it has been said, one is the indicative form and one is the subjunctive.

The sentences are both correct, except that I would place ya closer to the verb in the second sentence.
Good examples!!

Is there a grammatical reason?

I ask, because I see it ok. But then again, I do not know much grammar.

Hernan.

The grammatical reason for the dependent clause of the second sentence being cast in the subjunctive is because there is a verb of volition in the main clause. This is just one of the reasons to use the subjunctive. I believe there is a post somewhere in the forum that lists all the reasons.

Or are you asking about the ya being at the end of the sentence or not?

I was asking, as per your suggestion, the "ya" to be nearer the verb and not at the end. Right?

That's what I understood.

Correct, the adverb should go before or after the verb:
ya no hayas visto -or-
no hayas visto ya

The English sentence was fine. We can distance the adverb from the verb in English.

Got it. And thank you very much.

Hernan