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From the verb haber (i think).....

 

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  #1  
Old February 16, 2009, 10:00 AM
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From the verb haber (i think).....

would anyone know the difference between using "has" and "hayas"
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  #2  
Old February 16, 2009, 10:18 AM
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"has" is the tú form in the present form (indicativo)
"hayas" is the tú form in the present form (subjuntivo)

I checked the conjugation chart of "haber". I found them there, "has" and "hayas". I don't know the real difference. I think the difference is in indicativo (indicative) and subjuntivo (subjunctive)
hope this helps :-)

http://www.tomisimo.org/conjugate/haber

Last edited by Jessica; February 16, 2009 at 10:20 AM.
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Old February 16, 2009, 11:23 AM
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Correct. The mood (indicative or subjunctive) is the only difference.
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Old February 16, 2009, 04:43 PM
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¿Ya has visto esta película?

Have you seen this movie already?

Espero que no hayas visto esta película ya.

I hope that you haven't seen this movie already.


I think those are correct examples. As it has been said, one is the indicative form and one is the subjunctive.
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Old February 16, 2009, 07:22 PM
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The sentences are both correct, except that I would place ya closer to the verb in the second sentence.
Good examples!!

Last edited by Rusty; February 16, 2009 at 08:13 PM.
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Old February 16, 2009, 07:24 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rusty View Post
The sentences are both correct, except that I would place ya closer to the verb in the second sentence.
Good examples!!
Is there a grammatical reason?

I ask, because I see it ok. But then again, I do not know much grammar.

Hernan.

Last edited by Rusty; February 16, 2009 at 08:13 PM.
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Old February 16, 2009, 07:28 PM
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The grammatical reason for the dependent clause of the second sentence being cast in the subjunctive is because there is a verb of volition in the main clause. This is just one of the reasons to use the subjunctive. I believe there is a post somewhere in the forum that lists all the reasons.

Or are you asking about the ya being at the end of the sentence or not?
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Old February 16, 2009, 07:58 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rusty View Post
The grammatical reason for the dependent clause of the second sentence being cast in the subjunctive is because there is a verb of volition in the main clause. This is just one of the reasons to use the subjunctive. I believe there is a post somewhere in the forum that lists all the reasons.

Or are you asking about the ya being at the end of the sentence or not?
I was asking, as per your suggestion, the "ya" to be nearer the verb and not at the end. Right?

That's what I understood.
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Old February 16, 2009, 08:17 PM
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Correct, the adverb should go before or after the verb:
ya no hayas visto -or-
no hayas visto ya

The English sentence was fine. We can distance the adverb from the verb in English.
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Old February 17, 2009, 07:53 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rusty View Post
Correct, the adverb should go before or after the verb:
ya no hayas visto -or-
no hayas visto ya

The English sentence was fine. We can distance the adverb from the verb in English.

Got it. And thank you very much.

Hernan
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