From the verb haber (i think).....

[hola]

would anyone know the difference between using "has" and "hayas"

[Jessica]

"has" is the tú form in the present form (indicativo)
"hayas" is the tú form in the present form (subjuntivo)

I checked the conjugation chart of "haber". I found them there, "has" and "hayas". I don't know the real difference. I think the difference is in indicativo (indicative) and subjuntivo (subjunctive)
hope this helps :-)

http://www.tomisimo.org/conjugate/haber

[Rusty]

Correct. The mood (indicative or subjunctive) is the only difference.

[literacola]

¿Ya has visto esta película?

Have you seen this movie already?

Espero que no hayas visto esta película ya.

I hope that you haven't seen this movie already.


I think those are correct examples. As it has been said, one is the indicative form and one is the subjunctive.

[Rusty]

The sentences are both correct, except that I would place ya closer to the verb in the second sentence.
Good examples!!

[chileno]

Originally Posted by Rusty

The sentences are both correct, except that I would place ya closer to the verb in the second sentence.
Good examples!!

Is there a grammatical reason?

I ask, because I see it ok. But then again, I do not know much grammar.

Hernan.

[Rusty]

The grammatical reason for the dependent clause of the second sentence being cast in the subjunctive is because there is a verb of volition in the main clause. This is just one of the reasons to use the subjunctive. I believe there is a post somewhere in the forum that lists all the reasons.

Or are you asking about the ya being at the end of the sentence or not?

[chileno]

Originally Posted by Rusty

The grammatical reason for the dependent clause of the second sentence being cast in the subjunctive is because there is a verb of volition in the main clause. This is just one of the reasons to use the subjunctive. I believe there is a post somewhere in the forum that lists all the reasons.

Or are you asking about the ya being at the end of the sentence or not?

I was asking, as per your suggestion, the "ya" to be nearer the verb and not at the end. Right?

That's what I understood.

[Rusty]

Correct, the adverb should go before or after the verb:
ya no hayas visto -or-
no hayas visto ya

The English sentence was fine. We can distance the adverb from the verb in English.

[chileno]

Originally Posted by Rusty

Correct, the adverb should go before or after the verb:
ya no hayas visto -or-
no hayas visto ya

The English sentence was fine. We can distance the adverb from the verb in English.

Got it. And thank you very much.

Hernan