Quick question about haber + past participle

Quick question about haber + past participle
 

Consider the following sentence (marked correct on my homework):
Why are the bolded words not dichos and pintada, respectively?

Because "dicho" and "pintado" are participles, and participles have no gender nor plural in Spanish [what is also true for adverbs]

Because "haber + past participle" is a conjugation by itself, so past participle remains unchanged.

Nosotros hemos nacido - we've been born
Yo he cambiado - I have changed
Ellas han venido - they have come
María ha cantado - María has sung
Vosotros habéis entrado - you have come in


Not the same case when past participle works as an adjective.

Las sillas pintadas - the painted chairs
Los árboles cortados - the cut down trees
La niña educada - the polite girl
El auto vendido - the sold car


When the past participle is a part of passive voice, it must also agree with gender and number:

La casa ha sido pintada. - The house has been painted.
Los perros han sido encerrados. - The dogs have been locked up.
Las canciones han sido cantadas. - The songs have been sung.
El cuarto ha sido decorado. - The room has been decorated.

Oh okay, that makes a lot more sense now. Thanks for the clear explanation!

i.e. they don't inflect :D:D:D

Yes, indeed! :D:D:D

I have forgotten the substantive verb "ser" -just a minor detail- and Spanish features of making passive constructions departing from any available material, where participles are not quite participles:

han sido divididas (not "han sidas divididas":bad:)
son divididos en dos grupos
se los divide

I take you mean you had forgotten, pluperfect. :rolleyes::rolleyes:

Just a remark that there is no reason why a participle after haber should inflect, hence your "han sidas:bad:" example, but ser and estar do require agreement. There is a parallel here in French, where active past tenses conjugated with avoir do not inflect, but those with e^tre do inflect.