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Quick question about haber + past participlePractice your Spanish or English! Try to reply in the same language as the OP. |
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#1
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Quick question about haber + past participle
Consider the following sentence (marked correct on my homework):
Quote:
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#5
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Quote:
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Last edited by Perikles; June 25, 2011 at 03:33 AM. Reason: Hadn't read Angelica's post, passive voice comments deleted |
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#6
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Yes, indeed!
![]() ![]() ![]() I have forgotten the substantive verb "ser" -just a minor detail- and Spanish features of making passive constructions departing from any available material, where participles are not quite participles: han sido divididas (not "han sidas divididas" )son divididos en dos grupos se los divide
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#7
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Quote:
![]() ![]() Just a remark that there is no reason why a participle after haber should inflect, hence your "han sidas " example, but ser and estar do require agreement. There is a parallel here in French, where active past tenses conjugated with avoir do not inflect, but those with e^tre do inflect.
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