Mandar vs Enviar

Mandar vs Enviar
 

Is it okay to use either of these words in the same way? From my understanding, they both mean "to send" as in "Podrias porfavor madarme la factura?" or "Podrias porfavor enviarme la factura?"

Is one more polite? Are there better times to use one vs the other?

Thank you,

Both are equally correct. But I don't know why in my mind "enviar" sounds more proper.

"Mandar" also means to "to order" someone somehing. For example: Le gusta mandar - He likes giving orders.
Or: Tú no mandas aquí - You are not the one giving orders here.

That is why it sounds better to say "enviar" more polite. Both are correct.

So does "mandar" mean to give orders and not to order something? I ask because I thought "pedir" was to order something such as food or a product.

I will try and remember "enviar", but I can't remember anyone at work using it before. Is that word used more commonly in some countries over other? Thanks everyone.

To order something, like in a restaurant or some home delivery, can be "pedir" or "ordenar". "Mandar"/"enviar" can be used for the action of sending the order to the table from the kitchen or when delivery is being sent:

--¿Ya pediste/ordenaste la pizza? (Have you already ordered the pizza?)
--Sí, me dijeron que la mandan/envían en diez minutos. (Yes, I was told it will be sent in ten minutes.)


(The chef to his helper in the kitchen of a restaurant)
--En una mesa ordenaron/pidieron más tortillas. Mándaselas/envíaselas bien calientes. (There's a table where they ordered more tortillas. Send them very hot.)



The use of "mandar" as to give orders:
-Mi mamá me mandó comprar unas frutas al mercado. (Mom made me go to buy some fruits to the market.)
-Mandé a Juan que arreglara el techo. (I ordered Juan to fix the roof.)
-Manda que arreglen tus zapatos a arreglar; ya están rotos. (Make your shoes be fixed, they're already broken.)

Got it! Thanks :rose:

Hmmm...


Think about this:

I am sending a package to...

I am sending for Michael to be here.

What do you think?

They sound fine to me. "I am sending for Michael to be her" sounds old fashioned to me. Correct, but old fashioned. I probly wouldn't say it :rolleyes:
It makes me think of an English person from the Serendipity or similar movie. My wife made me watch it. I had no choice :sad:

For my money, "I am sending for Michael" is alright by itself, with the "to be here" well understood without having to be said.

I understand. But aren't you missing the point? :)

I don't think "ordenar" is used like that in Spain. And it's worth noting that it too means "to give orders".

Vs
- Mi mamá me mandó al mercado para comprar unas frutas. (Mum sent me to the market to buy some fruit).

Hey pjt33! You are probly right. A Mexican guy at work said that ordenar is understood but probly only in certain countries; Mexico being one of them.

I think you are right. That meaning of "pedir" for that word is not in the RAE dictionary. It sounds to me like making up a Spanish word from English.

I agree with pjt... the slight difference in sentences marks the difference of meaning:

·Mi mamá me mandó al mercado a comprar... -> She sent me.
·Mi mamá me mandó/ordenó comprar... -> She commanded me to go.

·Mandé a Juan que arreglara el techo. -> I commanded him to do it.
·Mandé a Juan a que arreglara el techo. -> I sent him up there to fix it.


·El rey manda/ordena que se cumpla la ley.
The king orders that the law is obeyed.