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Grammatical question about 'ud. se la monta a el'
My wife, who is Colombian, was in Costa Rica recently and the car she was in got into an accident which was the fault of the other driver. I asked how she she handled it and she told me:
"yo se la monté a ella" (where "ella" refers to the other driver). I understand the meaning of this, in English we would say "I gave her a piece of my mind" or "I chewed her out" or something like that. Other examples are: "Ud se la montó a ella" (past tense) "Ellos se la montaron a el" (past tense) "Yo se la monto a el" (present tense) My question is about grammar. What on earth is going on here? What's "se" for? Why "la" in every case? |
Montarse is a reflexive verb. La is the pronoun, and a ella clarifies the pronoun.
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"Se" is an indirect object pronoun for the third person (singular and plural), and it's redundant with "a ella". We do that sometimes, this time it's for emphasis and clarification. :)
If the indirect object had been "yo", "tú", "nosotros", "se" would have changed to: - Me la montó a mí. - Te la montaron a ti. - Nos la montaron a nosotros. "La" is a direct object. It substitutes "la bronca" or whatever the original idea is behind "montársela a alguien". :) |
Angelica. Thanks, now it makes sense. The "la" refers to "la bronca" or something with a similar meaning, which is why it isn't changing gender. Basically the way the Colombians use it is: "to bother someone" or to "give someone a hard time". Another example is: "Mi jefe me la monta todo el dia".
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I see. Sometimes, we use direct object pronouns (mostly "lo" and "la") without a specific meaning, but it can be easily understood by the listener:
- ¡Que la/lo pases bien! Have a good time! - Me la/lo hicieron muy difícil para darme la licencia. They gave me a hard time to give me the license. - Se las da de muy culta pero nunca ha leído un libro. She pretends to be highly educated, but she's never read a book. (In Mexican slang) - Ya la regué. (Me equivoqué. Cometí una tontería.) I screwed up. |
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