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-   -   Why "se" lo manda a .... (https://forums.tomisimo.org/showthread.php?t=20864)

Why "se" lo manda a ....


mwtzzz January 24, 2016 01:41 PM

Why "se" lo manda a ....
 
can someone explain the rationale behind the "se" in the following:

ya se lo mandó a ella?
se lo voy a enviar a la mia

AngelicaDeAlquezar January 24, 2016 02:21 PM

"Se" is an indirect object pronoun referring to "a ella" and "a la mía". They're redundant, but sometimes the speaker finds them necessary.

mwtzzz January 24, 2016 03:17 PM

"se" replaces the usual "le" when in front of a "lo" o "la" direct object pronoun so that's its easier to say

Rusty January 24, 2016 04:16 PM

Exactly. It sounds better. That's the rationale behind the use of 'se' in this particular structure.


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