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Why "se" lo manda a ....Grammar questions– conjugations, verb tenses, adverbs, adjectives, word order, syntax, etc. |
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#1
January 24, 2016, 01:41 PM
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Why "se" lo manda a ....
can someone explain the rationale behind the "se" in the following:
ya se lo mandó a ella? se lo voy a enviar a la mia 
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#2
January 24, 2016, 02:21 PM
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"Se" is an indirect object pronoun referring to "a ella" and "a la mía". They're redundant, but sometimes the speaker finds them necessary.
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#3
January 24, 2016, 03:17 PM
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"se" replaces the usual "le" when in front of a "lo" o "la" direct object pronoun so that's its easier to say
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#4
January 24, 2016, 04:16 PM
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Exactly. It sounds better. That's the rationale behind the use of 'se' in this particular structure.
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