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Future tense confusion

 

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  #1
Old July 19, 2011, 06:15 PM
PieMage PieMage is offline
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Future tense confusion

I'm confused about when to use the future tense of a verb. The assignment is in Spanish, but I want to try to learn the concept in English. The passage is about opening up a bank account. I put my best guess about how to conjugate the verb at the end of each quote.

Quote:
The advantage is that one can (poder) keep all of the interest... (ind.|future)
Quote:
To open an account you have (haber que) to deposit... (ind.|future)
Quote:
The government does/will not charge (cobrar) taxes on... (ind.|present)
Any help with this bit would be greatly appreciated!
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  #2
Old July 19, 2011, 06:56 PM
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You've lost me.
The indicative mood is used in each sentence, true, but I don't know why you are choosing the future tense in the first two and why you chose the present tense in the last one. These choices aren't correct.
What is it that you're trying to do?
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  #3
Old July 19, 2011, 07:12 PM
PieMage PieMage is offline
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Sorry if I wasn't clear. This is a multiple choice section. In place of the bolded words I'm given three conjugation choices, and I have to pick the correct one. I picked some excerpts from the passage that I was having trouble with.

Looking at it an hour later, though, it's starting to make a little bit more sense to me.
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  #4
Old July 20, 2011, 02:05 AM
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Perikles Perikles is offline
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If this is a simple question about the form of the future in English, then note the Germanic languages, including English, lost their 'future' tense somewhere, and had to reconstruct it using an extra verb, either shall or will. The difference between these is very complicated, so here I shall use will throughout.

Dead simple really, the same for almost all verbs:

Present - I sing
Future - I will sing (or I shall sing)

The verb can does not have a future form, so

Present - I can
Future - I will be able to

Is this what you are asking?
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  #5
Old August 06, 2011, 11:18 PM
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Sorry to resurrect this post, but I'm an curious what is meant as well. The last sentence I am the most curious about. I think the verb should be used like no cobrare. I'm curious what the question is as well because I want to understand myself. Rusty, your thoughts
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  #6
Old August 06, 2011, 11:30 PM
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I'm still not sure what the goal of the exercise was.


No cobraré = I will not charge (not a translation of the English sentence)
No cobrará = (3rd person) will not charge (substitute a 3rd-person subject - government)
No cobra = (3rd person) doesn't charge (present tense was probably not needed, since the exercise was about the future tense)

If you meant to not include the accent (no cobrare), this is incorrect. That is the future subjunctive, and it is no longer used. The indicative mood is used in these exercises.
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  #7
Old August 06, 2011, 11:34 PM
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DOH!!! I was looking at the conjugation site you showed me and sure enough, I was looking at the subjunctive not the indicative form. I can't get anything by you can I?
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