Dámelo. Dame. Dale.

[dogshed]

I googled to find sentences and I'm not sure what I found.
Are the translations wrong? What's going on here?

Dale que me ha. Give it to me.
Dámelo. Give it to me.
Dame un regalo. – Give me a gift.


Wiktionary says dámelo is dar+me+lo.
"Compound of the informal second-person singular (tú) affirmative imperative form of dar, da and the pronouns me and lo."


Why is dámelo spelled with an á and dame is not?
"Is Dale que me ha." a common form?

[wrholt]

Originally Posted by dogshed

I googled to find sentences and I'm not sure what I found.
Are the translations wrong? What's going on here?

Dale que me ha. Give it to me.
Dámelo. Give it to me.
Dame un regalo. – Give me a gift.

The first one seems incomplete to me.

Originally Posted by dogshed

Wiktionary says dámelo is dar+me+lo.
"Compound of the informal second-person singular (tú) affirmative imperative form of dar, da and the pronouns me and lo."

Correct.

Originally Posted by dogshed

Why is dámelo spelled with an á and dame is not?

That's what's required by the standard spelling and accent rules.

1. Words that end in a vowel letter (a, e, i, o, or u) or in one of the two consonant letters n or s are accented (stressed) on the second to last syllable, unless the word has only one syllable.

2. Words that end in any consonant letter EXCEPT n or s are accented (stressed) on the last syllable.

3. Any word whose accented (stressed) syllable does not fit either rule 1 or rule 2 MUST have a written accent mark over the main vowel of the accented syllable. This includes all words with 3 or more syllables whose accented syllable is not one of the two last syllables in the word.

Dame and dale match rule 1. Dámelo does not match either rule 1 or rule 2, so it must follow rule 3.

Originally Posted by dogshed

"Is Dale que me ha." a common form?

I don't think so. But I am not a native speaker.

[aleCcowaN]

Originally Posted by dogshed

"Is Dale que me ha." a common form?

You got that from a machine translation of Madonna's "Give it 2 me". That "translation" is a language travesty! Not only is not a common form, it just doesn't exist as an independent phrase.

[dogshed]

Originally Posted by aleCcowaN

You got that from a machine translation of Madonna's "Give it 2 me". That "translation" is a language travesty! Not only is not a common form, it just doesn't exist as an independent phrase.

Whenever I google I skip over anything that looks like a song translation for that reason. The two examples I looked at were an answers.com page and a pdf of a sermon. Both seemed fishy to me.
http://www.qhministries.org/Document.Doc?id=119
http://wiki.answers.com/Q/How_do_you..._me_in_Spanish

[aleCcowaN]

Google gives 14 pages: both you linked, two with Madonna's song, this very thread, another page saying other thing without using commas, and a few instances of documents that Google reads that way. Madonna's "translated" song, full of aberrations and a complete travesty, is the presumable source of the others.

As a rule of thumb when an expression in English returns X documents in Google, the Spanish equivalent should return about X/100 to X -it has to do with the way Google counts, not the actual number of documents, which is lesser-. For instance:

"give it to me" => 5980000 results
dámelo (1160000) + dámela (2450000) + me lo das (2420000) + me la das (1060000)=> 7090000 results