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Why is "pueden" being used in the first example here?Grammar questions– conjugations, verb tenses, adverbs, adjectives, word order, syntax, etc. |
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#1
April 21, 2022, 09:22 PM
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Why is "pueden" being used in the first example here?
I have this screenshot from Rosetta Stone:
https://i.lensdump.com/i/t05MV5.png In all three examples, he is talking to one person, so I can't figure out why he says "pueden" in the first example. Are "puede" and "pueden" interchangeable with the impersonal use of "se" or is this just an error? 
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#2
April 21, 2022, 09:54 PM
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The impersonal 'se' is always associated with a third person singular verb.
The third person plural can be used in the passive 'se' construction.
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