OI y OD Correcto/Incorrecto

[Roxerz]

I'm mainly focusing on part B but if you notice anything in the other sections to be wrong, please let me know as I find these pretty difficult

B)
1. Actually, now I think it's incorrect and should be SE and not LES because of 3rd person.
2. I think it should be Lo/La thus incorrect.
3. La, because I've never heard of Le/s with conocer. Know him/her
4. This one I'm a bit divided because Le is singular and invitaron is plural so different subjects. I'm thinking fiestas is the OD so LE would be the IO
5. Le just doesnt fit here imo. Who wove 'it'
6. Now I'm thinking this is incorrect, because of the same reasons as #4
7. I think it's correct because they celebrated her, not to her
8. I think correct because we gave the vacation to them.

[Julvenzor]

That exercise is a bit tricky. In fact, many people in Spain (native speakers) would make a lot of mistakes upon resolving it. However, in Mexico there is just a form of "leísmo" (leísmo de cortesía) and, therefore, I can understand why they decided to set it. First of all, I recommend you not to think in English. English verbs and Spanish verbs don't work in the same way with respect to direct/indirect pronouns.

1) It's correct. "Les" is OI (a ellos/ellas), "que no habían hecho lo suficiente" is the OD (=eso).

2) It's incorrect. "Le" would be a "leísmo". Very common in Spain.

3) Correct.

4) Incorrect. It could also be a "leísmo de cortesía" (acceptable), but leave it thus.

5) Correct. "¿Quién le tejió...?" means "Who woves it for him/her?". "Esa bufanda tan bonita" is the OD.

6) Incorrect. It's a "leísmo".

7) Correct. Remember, "celebrar" (to celebrate) doesn't work equal in Spanish.

8) Correct. "Un viaje al Caribe..." is the OD.


A pleasure.

[malavida]

''Briana me saludo desde la esquina''
I believe that me is an objeto directo and not an objeto indirecto as you have written...A native speaker could confirm this because I am not 100% sure.
Also:
Actividad 1:Sustituye
1)Mis amigos no pueden prestar el auto a nosotros => Mis amigos no pueden prestarnoslo./ Mis amigos nos lo no pueden prestar.

[Julvenzor]

Originally Posted by malavida

''Briana me saludo desde la esquina''
I believe that me is an objeto directo and not an objeto indirecto as you have written...A native speaker could confirm this because I am not 100% sure.

Yes, you're right. It's a DO.

[AngelicaDeAlquezar]

Mis amigos nos lo no pueden prestar.

Should be "Mis amigos no nos lo pueden prestar."
The negative particle is always preceding the thing being denied.

[Roxerz]

Originally Posted by AngelicaDeAlquezar

Should be "Mis amigos no nos lo pueden prestar."
The negative particle is always preceding the thing being denied.

Thank you. I'm a bit late on seeing this but is this the same idea behind negative commands always having the IO/DO in front of the command?

I remember that idea being taught but I thought it only applied to imperatives.

For example:
Dámelo
No me lo des

[AngelicaDeAlquezar]

I'm not sure I understand your question, but the negative particle goes before the pronouns when they aren't suffixes of the verbs.

[Roxerz]

Originally Posted by AngelicaDeAlquezar

I'm not sure I understand your question, but the negative particle goes before the pronouns when they aren't suffixes of the verbs.

I misread the previous post. I thought you were quoting me. I now see what you are correcting.

For a second, I thought you were saying that the rule with negative imperatives applies to negative indicative sentences where the direct object and indirect object pronouns needed to go in front of negative commands but then just now, I realize that you were just correcting the placement of where Malavida put "no" in reference of "nos lo".

If I´m not clear which I usually am not, lets just leave it at that I just misread/understood lol

[AngelicaDeAlquezar]

That's Ok.