Indicative v Imperative

[Glynn]

I am a little confused. I have recently read the following text " Si tardo, me esparáis" and the translation given was "If I am late, wait for me". This was written apparently by a native Spanish speaker. My question is - In Spain is the indicative sometimes used colloquially instead of the imperative?

[aleCcowaN]

"Y si tardo, me esperan" also in this side of the pond.

Remember, both in English and Spanish, present tense is used for scheduled actions "my plain leaves tomorrow at 10 a.m" (mi avión despega mañana a las 10). In the same way, the use of present tense replaces an order (imperative) by something that has been already decided (present meaning future). In the last case there is no doubt it is like an order because, unlike "espérenme" or "esperadme", it can't be construed as a petition.

[Glynn]

Originally Posted by aleCcowaN

"Y si tardo, me esperan" also in this side of the pond.

Remember, both in English and Spanish, present tense is used for scheduled actions "my plain leaves tomorrow at 10 a.m" (mi avión despega mañana a las 10). In the same way, the use of present tense replaces an order (imperative) by something that has been already decided (present meaning future). In the last case there is no doubt it is like an order because, unlike "espérenme" or "esperadme", it can't be construed as a petition.

Muchas gracias

[aleCcowaN]

You're welcome