no gusto / no le gusto

[hola]

mujeres no gusto
mujeres no le gusto

they look the same to me.

[Fazor]

The first one is missing a (subject?). It would just say "Women don't like" (Don't like what?)

Second says "Women don't like it."

That's my take . . . but grammar, and in Spanish at that, is certainly not my area of expertise.

[irmamar]

Originally Posted by hola

mujeres no gusto
mujeres no le gusto

they look the same to me.

Neither one nor the other are correct. Did you want to say?

No gusto a las mujeres
No les gusto a las mujeres

What's the difference: there's no difference. The reason is because in Spanish we duplicate the IO with a pronoun (le/les, etc.). You can say both of them, but the most usual is the second one, that with the pronoun. Most of cases the duplication of the IO is compulsory.

[Fazor]

Oh, duh. Brain disconnect today, I guess.

Would it maybe be "Las mujeres no las gustan."? It really depends on what you're trying to say.

[hola]

I don't know but if you look at the conjugation chart for gustar, you would find gusto next to (yo) so that should answer the question about who the subject is. so now that we know who the subject is, doesn't it say "women don't like me."

a spanish woman born in Ponce, Puerto Rico said the second one. (mujeres no le gusto). I assume she's an expert. she must be an expert. it was her way of saying women don't like me (speaking of herself). I didn't see the importance of (le) if you are already conjugating the verb in your favor. again if you look at the conjugation table for gustar, (gusto) is next to (yo). its like saying comO a las tres instead of saying yo voy a comER a las tres. if the verb is already conjugated in your favor why use the infinitive or why add an IO. am i incorrect or correct? thats why to me if mujeres no le gusto means women don't like me, then why not just say mujeres no gusto.

[Fazor]

Okay, well the more we talk about this, the more apparent it is (to me) that I am not familiar with this usage of gustar. But I did a search and found this thread from wordreference.com. I believe it answers your question.

[irmamar]

Originally Posted by Fazor

Oh, duh. Brain disconnect today, I guess.

Would it maybe be "Las mujeres no las gustan."? It really depends on what you're trying to say.

Sorry, but this sentence means nothing. You could say:

A las mujeres no les gusta X

Here you can see a compulsory pronoun with an IO value. You can't say "a las mujeres no gusta"*. Pronoun la/las is used as DO.

Maybe you could say:

Las mujeres no le gustan a alguien.

You have to know what is the subject, what is the DO and what is the IO. Verb and subject have concordance in number. Let me give you a very simple syntactic analysis of the first sentence:

X: subject (X is not an DO, you could say: A las mujeres no les gustan X and Y)
(no) gusta: verb
a las mujeres - les: indirect object

And now another one about the second sentence:

Las mujeres: subject
(no) gustan: verb, look at the concordance subject - verb
le - a alguien: IO

Sometimes it's difficult in Spanish to difference between ID and DO with the pronouns. The possibility of duplication is a clue to distinguish this IO.

[Fazor]

I think I understand the construction now.
Mujeres no le gusto. "(yo) Gusto" is "I please" the "le" is needed because that's what you're pleasing (or, in this case, not pleasing) to (The indirect object). Mujeres is needed because "le" is ambigous, and needs to be defined.

If they were already indicated in a prior sentence, you wouldn't need both. For instance: Las mujeres son loco! No le(s) gusto! Pero, soy perfecto!

I still think "le" needs to be "les" there, since "mujeres" is plural.

[irmamar]

Originally Posted by Fazor

I think I understand the construction now.
Mujeres no le gusto. "(yo) Gusto" is "I please" the "le" is needed because that's what you're pleasing (or, in this case, not pleasing) to (The indirect object). Mujeres is needed because "le" is ambigous, and needs to be defined.

If they were already indicated in a prior sentence, you wouldn't need both. For instance: Las mujeres son loco! No le(s) gusto! Pero, soy perfecto!

I still think "le" needs to be "les" there, since "mujeres" is plural.

Yes, you're right. The sentence would be

A las mujeres (yo) no les gusto.

But you need also the preposition "a".

[Fazor]

A lot of the posts on the wordreference forum thread I linked have it the way hola said it was spoken to him; so I wonder if that's a regional thing? I wouldn't know about that though.

[Rusty]

No, irmamar has posted the only acceptable ways to say what she (hola) wants to say. There are no regionalisms that I know of that contradict the accepted usage.

[chileno]

Originally Posted by hola

I don't know but if you look at the conjugation chart for gustar, you would find gusto next to (yo) so that should answer the question about who the subject is. so now that we know who the subject is, doesn't it say "women don't like me."

a spanish woman born in Ponce, Puerto Rico said the second one. (mujeres no le gusto). I assume she's an expert. she must be an expert. it was her way of saying women don't like me (speaking of herself). I didn't see the importance of (le) if you are already conjugating the verb in your favor. again if you look at the conjugation table for gustar, (gusto) is next to (yo). its like saying comO a las tres instead of saying yo voy a comER a las tres. if the verb is already conjugated in your favor why use the infinitive or why add an IO. am i incorrect or correct? thats why to me if mujeres no le gusto means women don't like me, then why not just say mujeres no gusto.

Probably she said something like " a las mujeres no les gusto"

There could be an instance in which, depending of how the conversations goes, that she could've said "¿Mujeres? No les gusto!"

Punctuation!

[CrOtALiTo]

Originally Posted by hola

mujeres no gusto
mujeres no le gusto

they look the same to me.

Yes as you have said, they seems like between them, but anyway they are not the same.

I will tell you some ideas of as you can write them of the best way.

A las mujeres no les gusto.

No les gusto a las mujeres.


I'm considering give you these examples, because I believe that they are the best way to write them, anyway they could to be write of other way, but at least at Spanish, I feel that they are the best to write them without leaves to express the original idea.

[hola]

Fazor actually sees what i am talking about
if u look at the chart and other forums gustO is next to (yo)
we only have 2 parties involved- the women and the person that they hate
mujeres no gusto
(subject 1) (subject 2)
in effect it says i don't please women
if you wanted to say women hate them it would be mujeres no gustAN
and thats the way you say i like or i hate or im liked or im hated in spanish
remember there is no real word for "like" in spanish
you have to look at it like "who or what do you please" OR "who or what pleases you"
i really want to hear Rusty's take on this
i don't know if he is ever wrong

[Tomisimo]

Originally Posted by Fazor

I think I understand the construction now.
Mujeres no le gusto. "(yo) Gusto" is "I please" the "le" is needed because that's what you're pleasing (or, in this case, not pleasing) to (The indirect object). Mujeres is needed because "le" is ambigous, and needs to be defined.

If they were already indicated in a prior sentence, you wouldn't need both. For instance: Las mujeres son loco! No le(s) gusto! Pero, soy perfecto!

I still think "le" needs to be "les" there, since "mujeres" is plural.

Originally Posted by hola

Fazor actually sees what i am talking about
if u look at the chart and other forums gustO is next to (yo)
we only have 2 parties involved- the women and the person that they hate
mujeres no gusto
(subject 1) (subject 2)
in effect it says i don't please women
if you wanted to say women hate them it would be mujeres no gustAN
and thats the way you say i like or i hate or im liked or im hated in spanish
remember there is no real word for "like" in spanish
you have to look at it like "who or what do you please" OR "who or what pleases you"
i really want to hear Rusty's take on this
i don't know if he is ever wrong

"Mujeres no le gusto"

Fazor's analysis is correct. In other words, to say "Women don't like me", you have to turn it around and say "I am not pleasing to women", which does use the "yo" form of the verb "gustar", which would be "gusto". But first, you need the personal A for mujeres, so it has to be:

"A las mujeres, no les gusto".
lit. "to women, I am not pleasing" = "Women don't like me".

The pronoun also has to be les, because mujeres is plural. If you hear a Puerto Rican say it, it's very possible the S was aspirated (and not audibly pronounced) even though it's still there. Also, in regular speech, a non-native speaker might not pick up on the "a las" at the beginning of the sentence, so it very well might have sounded like:

"mujers, no le gusto"

but what they were really saying was:

"a las mujeres, no les gusto".

[Rusty]

I already said that I agree with Irmamar, and now the others who have chimed in.
A las mujeres no les gusto is what was said if the meaning was women don't like me.

[hola]

hey wait a minute Diamond I was the one who said you have to flip it and say "i am not pleasing to women" :-) and I think I see why "les" has to be put in there now. but seriously, all in all, would anyone know what does mujeres no gusto say? it cant be "women don't like" because its gustO not gustAN. so if "mujeres no gusto" was written what would it be saying? (just out of curiosity)

[Rusty]

Mujeres no gusto is not Spanish. It is broken Spanish, at best.
We English speakers have to pay extra special attention to the verb gustar. It doesn't mean to like. It can't be used like our verb to like. The English structure is subject, verb, direct object.

The Spanish verb is usually translated to be pleasing to someone. The subject answers the question 'what is pleasing?' The verb is conjugated to match number and person with the subject. An indirect object pronoun answers the question 'who is pleased?' The chosen IOP agrees in number and person with 'who is pleased'. The 3rd-person IOP is ambiguous, so there it must be clarified with a prepositional phrase that begins with a. So, the Spanish structure is subject, indirect object pronoun, verb (the subject can also follow the verb). There will often be a clarifying prepositional phrase when the IOP is ambiguous.

She like apples. (subject, verb, direct object)
A ella le gustan las manzanas. (prepositional phrase that clarifies the IOP, indirect object pronoun, verb, subject) -or the prepositional phrase can trail the verb-

Women like to go shopping. (subject, verb, direct object in the form of a noun clause that contains a gerund)
A las mujeres les gusta ir de compras. (prepositional phrase that clarifies the IOP, indirect object pronoun, verb) -or the prepositional phrase can trail the verb-

Women like me. (subject, verb, direct object pronoun)
A las mujeres les gusto. (prepositional phrase that clarifies the IOP, indirect object pronoun, verb with built-in subject) -or the prepositional phrase can trail the verb-

Me gustas = You are pleasing to me = I like you
Les gustamos = We are pleasing to them = They like us

Me gusta = It is pleasing to me = I like it (throw in any singular subject to make it more clear what is pleasing)
Te gustan = They are pleasing to you = You like them (complete with any plural subject)

Hope this helps a bit!