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Tengo unas preguntasVocab questions, definitions, usage, etc |
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#2
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Le doy a mi maestro de español un millón de dolares para su cumpleaños. Nadie le da a nadie nada en diciembre porque no hay celebraciones en ese mes. The underlined words ("le" before the verb, and the prepositional phrase "a [noun phrase]" after the verb) are the indirect objects in these sentences. In these sentence, the indirect object is the pronoun 'le', while the prepositional phrase 'a mi maestro de español' or 'a nadie' clarifies exactly who is referenced by 'le'. The second sentence starts with (subject verb indirect object direct object): Nadie le da a nadie nada... Nobody gives anybody anything... |
#6
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I don't think we know what you're having problems understanding, exactly.
If it is the combination of indirect object pronoun and indirect object, you would be safe to use them both. That is perfectly good Spanish. If you do omit one, choose the more redundant of the two (the one that would be understood without it being said). Last edited by Rusty; June 29, 2011 at 10:59 AM. |
#7
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Le doy a mi maestro de español un millón de dolares para su cumpleaños.
"Le doy" means "I give him," right? So to me, it translates directly as, "Him I give my teacher of Spanish a million dollars for his birthday." It just sounds odd to me. Maybe I'm misunderstanding something? |
#8
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Generally, two languages never translate word for word in a manner where it does not sound odd. |
#9
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I'm giving him -my teacher of Spanish- a million dollars for his birthday.
"I give him" translates directly as "Doy él" what not only is odd: it doesn't make any sense at all. Strange Babel this world of many a language! ![]()
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Sorry, no English spell-checker |
#10
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