Just have

[Jellybaby]

¿Cómo se dice..?

"If I got to your house for 2.00, they would have only just finished eating and wouldn't have time to play."

"Si fui a tu casa para las 2.00, ni bien habrán terminado comiendo y no tendrían tiempo para jugar."

[poli]

Si fuera a tu casa a las dos, apenas habrían terminado de comer y no tendrían tiempo de jugar.

[Julvenzor]

Si llegara/llegase (?) a tu casa hacia las 2:00, apenas habrían terminado de comer y no tendrían tiempo de/para jugar.

¿Cuál es exactamente el sentido de "got" aquí?

Edito: Veo que Poli y yo nos hemos cruzado.

Un saludo cordial.

[Premium]

Originally Posted by Julvenzor

¿Cuál es exactamente el sentido de "got" aquí?

Come?

[aleCcowaN]

"if I got to your house..." sounds to me more like "si me cayera por su casa..." but that's maybe regional.

Speaking of regional, I understand that "for 2.00" as more imprecise than "at 2 OK", am I right? If I am, that "... hacia las 2..." sounds wrong to me, is it an españolismo? I'd say "... a eso de las 2..." but I don't know the regional scope of this.

"... no tendrían tiempo de jugar" ---> they need to play some time before I come. With "para" it is a bit more ambiguous, but it is understood mainly in the same way. With "de" it sounds more as a condition, with "para" it sounds more as a goal.

[Nomenclature]

Originally Posted by aleCcowaN

Speaking of regional, I understand that "for 2.00" as more imprecise than "at 2 OK", am I right?

As a native English speaker, I can tell you that "for 2:00" is something you will never hear. "at 2:00" is what would be used if you want to be exactly at 2:00 whereas "around 2:00" is used if you want to say you might be there a little bit before or after 2:00

[aleCcowaN]

Originally Posted by Nomenclature

As a native English speaker, I can tell you that "for 2:00" is something you will never hear. "at 2:00" is what would be used if you want to be exactly at 2:00 whereas "around 2:00" is used if you want to say you might be there a little bit before or after 2:00

Thank you. Can't we say "I'll get there by 2:00" too? It was that what I was thinking like "a eso de las 2".

[Nomenclature]

Originally Posted by aleCcowaN

Thank you. Can't we say "I'll get there by 2:00" too? It was that what I was thinking like As in "a eso de las 2".

"I'll get there by two" is very common. Use it if you want to say that you will arrive before or at 2:00. Don't use it if you are going to arrive after 2:00 though.

[wrholt]

Originally Posted by aleCcowaN

"if I got to your house..." sounds to me more like "si me cayera por su casa..." but that's maybe regional.

To my (northeastern US) ears, "if I got to your house" = "if I arrived at your house".

Originally Posted by aleCcowaN

Speaking of regional, I understand that "for 2.00" as more imprecise than "at 2 OK", am I right? If I am, that "... hacia las 2..." sounds wrong to me, is it an españolismo? I'd say "... a eso de las 2..." but I don't know the regional scope of this.

In the OP's original context, I hear "for 2:00" as referring to one of a number of possible times under discussion, while saying either "at 2:00" or "by 2:00" suggests that only one time is under discussion.

However, the OP is from the UK; there is a certain amount of regional variation in how prepositions are used in English.

[aleCcowaN]

Originally Posted by Nomenclature

"I'll get there by two" is very common. Use it if you want to say that you will arrive before or at 2:00. Don't use it if you are going to arrive after 2:00 though.

so I reckon "by two" means "a las dos, a más tardar"

Originally Posted by wrholt

To my (northeastern US) ears, "if I got to your house" = "if I arrived at your house".

Yes. I was thinking in the nuance of using the versatile, omnipresent, chameleonic verb "get" to say this. There are a lot of regionalisms "si te caigo a las 2", "si me aparezco a las dos por tu casa", etc.

Originally Posted by wrholt

In the OP's original context, I hear "for 2:00" as referring to one of a number of possible times under discussion, while saying either "at 2:00" or "by 2:00" suggests that only one time is under discussion.

However, the OP is from the UK; there is a certain amount of regional variation in how prepositions are used in English.

In that case, the original Jellybaby's "para las dos" is spot on.

Thank you both. Very interesting.

[Nomenclature]

Originally Posted by aleCcowaN

so I reckon "by two" means "a las dos, a más tardar"

exactly

[Jellybaby]

I am a native English speaker and where I am from we say "for 2.00" it means it is the time that I would be aiming to get to the persons house!

"To get to a persons house" is to arrive at their house. If I say "If I arrive at your house" it sounds to formal.

"If I got to you house for 2.00" (Context a friend who was going to look after my kids had originally said that I could pick them up at 2.00 but then later said "No let's make it later more like 4.00 so they have time to play." I reply "Ok, I was thinking that if I got (Arrived) at your house for 2.00 (At 2.00) they would have only just finished eating and wouldn't have time to play."

[aleCcowaN]

Si llegara a tu/su casa a eso de las 2, recién/apenas habrían terminado de comer y no tendrían tiempo para jugar

"A eso de la/s [hora]" means either it's a past event and the speaker hadn't a watch or clock available and s/he's making an estimation, or regarding a future event it's a rough estimation, just an intention, or eventually punctuality is not sought nor required.